Question Bank on Mutation | Zoology MCQs

Mutation
Spread the knowledge

Multiple choice Questions of Zoology Topic Mutation MCQ with Answers ( Mutation ) for NEET, GATE, AIAPGET, NEET MDS, NEET PG, DNB PDCET, AIIMS SS, PGIMER (Other), AIIMS PG and many more competitive examinations.

Question Bank on Mutation | Mutation Quiz PDF | Zoology MCQs

1. Which statement about mutation is false ?

( a ) Mutations can happen at a rate of -10 %

( b ) A change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene is a point mutation

( c ) A change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene doesn’t necessarily change the product of that gene

( d ) Most of mutation are beneficial to the organisms that have them

Ans. d

2. Mutations which do not cause any functional change in the protein are known as

( a ) non – sense mutations

( b ) mis – sense mutations

( c ) backward mutations

( d ) silent mutations

Ans. d

3. A recessive mutation is one which

( a ) is not expressed

( b ) is expressed only when heterozygous

( c ) is expressed only when homozygous or hemizygous

( d ) is eliminated by natural selection

Ans. c

4. Thymine dimer formation during replication of DNA is caused due to the

( a ) gamma radiation

( b ) UV radiation

( c ) X – rays

( d ) IR radiation

Ans. b

5. Which of the following processes would not contribute to genetic variation within a bacterial population ?  

( a ) Transduction

( b ) Transformation

( c ) Mutation

( d ) Meiosis

Ans. d

6. Spontaneous mutations caffeine

( a ) are caused by chemicals such as acridine orange and

( b ) are caused by physical agents such as UV light or X – rays

( c ) are the result of errors in the base pairing of nucleotides during replication

( d ) occur at a rate higher than the rate of induced mutations

Ans. c

7. A DNA mutation that results in no change in protein product produced is termed as

( a ) mis – sense mutation

( b ) non – sense mutation

( c ) silent mutation

( d ) frameshift mutation

Ans. c

8. Which of the following changes to a DNA molecule is least likely to result in a deleterious mutation ?

( a ) Insertion of a transposable element in a coding region

( b ) Deletion of a base pair in a coding region

( c ) Change of a base pair in the first codon of a coding region

( d ) Change of the third base pair of a codon

Ans. d

9. Mutations often occur as a result of base substitutions. The most common cause of base substitution is

( a ) tautomeric shifts

( b ) meiotic errors

( c ) base insertions

( d ) base deletions

Ans. a

10. A tautomeric shift causing the substitution of one purine for a pyramidine is calles

( a ) transversion

( b ) translocation

( c ) transition

( d ) inversion

Ans. a

MCQ on Genetics with Answers | MCQ on Gene

11. When a mutational event leads to the replacement of one codon for another coding for the same amino acid , the resulting mutation is known as

( a ) frameshift

( b ) neutral

( c ) mis sense

( d ) silent

Ans. d

12. When bacteria are spread on a plate containing an Antibiotic , colonies of resistant bacteria appear on the plate . The Darwinian explanation for this is that

( a ) the antibiotic induced the resistance

( b ) resistant cells pre – existed in the population and selected by the antibiotic

( c ) no genetic change is required to exhibit antibiotic resistance

( d ) the antibiotic is mutagenic

Ans. b

13. Using site directed mutagenesis four mutant of a protein have been generated . Which of the following missense mutations has the largest difference in terms of number of atoms between the wild type and the mutant ?

( a ) Serto Cys

( b ) Tyr to Phe

( c ) Lys to Ala

( d ) Arg to Lys

Ans. c

14. Which of the following is most likely to lead to a loss of  gene function ?

( a ) A missense mutation in the open reading frame

( b ) A change from T to Cin the promoter region

( c ) A frameshift mutation in the coding region

( d ) A sequence change in the three untranslated region

Ans. c

15. In genetics , suppression of a mutation refers to

( a ) restoration of the original phenotype due to a second mutation

( b ) restoration of the onginal DNA sequence by mutation

( c ) prevention of expression of the mutant gene by metabolic regulation

( d ) appearance of the recessive phenotype in a heterozygous diploid

Ans. a

16. A protein that is normally localised to the nucleus has been mutated in such a way that its localisation is no longer nuclear but cytosolic instead . The function of the protein , however is 99 % of the wild type protein . Which of the following could be said about the mutation

( a ) It is a frameshift mutation

( b ) It is a non sense mutation

( c ) It is a silent mutation

( d ) It is a small deletion

Ans. d

17. Mutation is the change in

( a ) gene frequency

( b ) base pairs in the DNA

( c ) genetic drift

( d ) environmental mechanism of evolution

Ans. b

18. Which of the following chemical mutagen is likely to cause GC – AT transitions ?

( a ) 5 bromouracil

( b ) 2 aminopunine

( c ) Acridine orange

( d ) Hydroxylamine

Ans. d

19. Sites where mutations occur at rates higher than normal are known as

( a ) suppressor sites

( b ) hotspots

( c ) mutator sites

( d ) cistrong

Ans. b

20. If GUG – codon is used as a starting codon then it codes for

( a ) valine

( b ) cysteine

( c ) methionine

( d ) leucine

Ans. c

Genetics Multiple Choice Questions | Genome Wide Gene Expression Analysis is Performed using MCQ

21. 5 bromouracil

( a ) bonds irreversibly with A

( b ) may resemble C and bond with G

( c ) is analog of Tand pairs with G

( d ) resembles U and would not be incorporated into DNA

Ans. c

22. Tay – Sach’s disease is due to

( a ) sex linked recessive genes

( b ) sex linked dominant genes

( c ) autosomal dominant genes

( d ) autosomal recessive genes

Ans. d

23. Defect in amino acid metabolism may result in

( a ) porphyria

( b ) phenylketonuria

( c ) Wilson’s disease

( d ) Tay – Sach’s disease

Ans. b

24. Mutations altering nucleotide sequence within a gene are

( a ) frameshift mutation

( b ) base pair substitution

( c ) Both ( a ) and ( b )

( d ) None of these

Ans. a

25. A normal rate of spontaneous mutation is one in every

( a ) 3√10 – 5√10

( b ) 5√10 – 7√10

( C ) 6√10 – 9√10

( d ) 7√10 – 10√10

Ans. b

26. Phenylketonuria is genetic disorder caused by a deiect in metabolism of

( a ) fatty acid

( b ) polysaccharides

( c ) amino acids

( d ) vitamins

Ans. c

27. Mutation in which a part or complete gene is removed is

( a ) deletion

( b ) inversion

( c ) translocation

( d ) duplication

Ans. a

29. Which one is inherited disorder?

( a ) Albinism

( b ) AIDS

( c ) Parkinson’s disease

( d ) Leprosy

Ans. a

30. Albinism is due to hereditary deficiency of enzyme

( a ) amylase

( b ) carbonic anhydrase

( c ) acetylcholine esterase

( d ) tyrosinase

Ans. d

Mendelian Genetics MCQ | Mutation Testing is Related to MCQ

31. Sickle – cell anaemia is

( a ) metabolic disorder

( b ) genetic disorder

( c ) degenerative disorder

( d ) pathogenic disorder

Ans. b

32. The condition of sickle – cell anaemia is due to the

( a ) silent mutation

( b ) point mutation

( c ) chromosomal mutation

( d ) frameshift mutation

Ans. b

33. Which out of these is not a hereditary diseases ?

( a ) Cystic fibrosis

( b ) Haemophilia

( c ) Cretinism

( d ) Thalassemia

Ans. c

34. A sudden spontaneous change in structure and action of a gene is called

( a ) vanation

( b ) alleomorph

( c ) linkage

( d ) mutation

Ans. d

35. Monosomic and trisomic condition are

( a ) 2n – 12n + 1

( b ) 2n – 12n + 2

( c ) 2n + 1, 2n + 3

( d ) n,n + 1

Ans. a

36. Which is not true of haemophilia ?

( a ) Bleeder’s disease

( b ) Royal disease

( c ) X – linked disorder

( d ) Y – linked disorder

Ans. d

37. Christmas disease is another name of

( a ) sleeping sickness

( b ) Down’s syndrome

( c ) hepatitis

( d ) haemophilia

Ans. d

38. Which of the following disease does not occurs due to a chromosomal abnormalities ?

( a ) Achondroplasia

( b ) Myeloid leukaemia

( c ) Cri – du – chat disease

( d ) Patau’s syndrome

Ans. a

39. Myeloid leukaemia disease is associated with the

( a ) partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5

( b ) deletion of the long arm of chromosome 22

( c ) translocation of chromosome 9

( d ) deletion of the long arm of chromosome 22 with translocation on to chromosome 9

Ans. d

40. Choose the mismatch

( a ) Myeloid leukaemia – Deletion of the long arm of chromosome 22 with translocation on to chromosome 9

( b ) Cr – du – chat disease – Partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5

( c ) Sickle – cell anaemia – Tetrasomy 23

( d ) Patau’s syndrome – Trisomy 13

Ans. c

Mutation Quiz Answer Key

41. Which of the following trait is not a characteristic of Tumer’s syndrome ?

( a ) Premature character is common

( b ) The cells contains 45 chromosomes

( c ) The offsprings have 50 % of inheriting the disease

( d ) Both ( a ) and ( c )

Ans. d

42. Which of the following feature is not associated with Klinefelter’s syndrome ?

( a ) The Karyotype is always 44+ XXY

( b ) The extra chromosome comes from the mother germ cells

( c ) There is an increased incidence of lens sublucation

( d ) The patient is infertile

Ans. d

43. Which of the following feature is not true regarding Klinefelter’s syndrome ?

( a ) The karyotype may be 47 xXY XXXYY or XXYY

( b ) The patient is tall and has bilateral gynaecomastia

( c ) There is hypogonadism resulting in intertility

( d ) The incidence of breast cancer is decreased

Ans. d

44. If four chromosomes synapse into a CTOSS – starea configuration during meiotic prophase the organish heterozygous for a

( a ) pericentre inversion

( b ) deletion

( c ) translocaton

( d ) paracentric Inversion

Ans. c

45. Philadelphia chromosome is generated by translocation between

( a ) chromosome 18 and chromosome 6

( b ) chromosome 22 and chromosome 9

( c ) chromosome 22 and chromosome 3

( d ) chromosome 16 and chromosome 4

Ans. b

46. Retinoblastoma is cause by loss of both copies of the RR gene in the chromosome band

( a ) 13q11

( b ) 13q11

( c ) 13q14

( d ) 21q14

Ans. b

47. Position effect is the results of

( a ) mutations

( b ) deletions

( c ) inversions

( d ) transversions

Ans. c

48. The bridge – fragment configuration at anaphase is characteristic of

( a ) translocation heterozygote

( b ) paracentric inversion heterozygote

( c ) pericentric inversion heterozygote

( d ) duplication heterozygote

Ans. b

49. A mechanisin that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is

( a ) translocation

( b ) inversion

( c ) crossing over

( d ) duplication

Ans. a

50. Pseudodominance may be observed in heterozygotes for

( a ) a deletion

( b ) a duplication

( c ) a reciprocal translocation

( d ) All of these

Ans. a

51. Which of the following chromosomal changes is usually the most damaging when in the homozygous condition ?

( a ) Deletion

( b ) Duplication

( c ) Translocation

( d ) Inversion

Ans. a

52. In a trisomic individual the number of chromosomes is

( a ) 2n – 1

( b ) 2n + 2

( c ) 2n + 3

( d ) 2n+1

Ans. d

53. A person with Klinefelter’s syndrome is considered a

( a ) monosomic

( b ) triploid

( c ) trisomic

( d ) deletion heterozygote

Ans. c

54. If the garden pea has 14 chromosmes in its diploid complement , how many double trisomics could theoretically exist ?

( a ) 6

( b ) 9

( c ) 16

( d ) 21

Ans. c

55. The condition in which there is one to many or one to few chromosomes is called

( a ) aneuploidy

( b ) polytene

( c ) polyploidy

( d ) monoploidy

Ans. a

56. Most cases of Down’s syndrome are caused by the presence of a third copy of chromosome 21 associated with the chromosome 21 pair . This genetic condition , known as trisomy 21 , is caused by

( a ) a frameshift mutation

( b ) chromosome non – disjunction

( c ) fragile X – syndrome

( d ) chromosome translocation

Ans. b

57. People with Klinefelter’s syndrome have 47 chromosomes , including three sex – chromosome ( XXY ) . What is the term to describe the aberration that occurs during meiosis that results in abnormal chromosome number ?

( a ) Crossing over

( b ) Non – disjunction

( c ) Independent assortment

( d ) Pairing of homologous chromosome

Ans. b

58. Which statements about Down’s syndrome is correct ?

I. The frequency increases dramatically in mothers over the age of 40 .

II . The cause is a non – disjunction when chromosomes do not separate during the first meiotic division .

III . Affected individuals have an extra autosome .

IV . The long time lag between onset of meiosis in ovarian tissue and its completion ( at ovulation ) is most likely the reason for increased incidence in older mothers .

( a ) I and IV

( b ) Ill and III

( c ) II , III and IV

( d ) I , II , III and IV

Ans. d

59. An individual with two normal sets of autosomes and a single X – chromosome has

( a ) Down’s syndrome

( b ) Patau’s syndrome

( c ) Turner’s syndrome

( d ) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Ans. c

60. An individual with the chromosomal description 45 , X  would be a

( a ) normal female

( b ) temale with Tumer’s syndrome

( c ) male with Klinefelter’s syndrome

( d ) cannot be determined

Ans. b

61. Phenyekletonuria , Huntington’s disease and sickle – cell anaemia are caused by disorders associated with chromosomes

( a ) 7, 11 and 12

( b ) 12 , 4 and 11

( c ) 11,4 and 12

( d ) 4 , 7 and 11

Ans. b

62. Melanurea ( black urine ) is caused by abnormal catabolism of

( a )alanine

( b ) tyrosine

( c ) proline

( d ) tryptophan

Ans. b

63. Mutations which normally happen randomly are considered one of the raw materials for evolution because they

( a ) contribute to new variation in organism

( b ) cause death of organism

( c ) are stable

( d ) None of the above

Ans. a

For More Topic of Zoology MCQs CLICK HERE


Spread the knowledge

Related posts

One Thought to “Question Bank on Mutation | Zoology MCQs”

Leave a Comment