We are going to cover CCNA questions and answers pdf (CCNA questions and answers pdf (1000+ MCQs) | CCNA interview questions and answers pdf) or CCNA Test Quiz with Answers. Main Purpose to cover the Cisco Certified Network Associate is to help those students who can’t buy mock tests for regular exams and for competitive examinations. these Cisco Certified Network Associate questions are asked in IT Sector. Topic Wise Quiz Given Below.
CCNA Interview Questions and Answers pdf 2023-24
1. Internetworking
2. Ethernet Networking and Data Encapsulation
3. Introduction to TCP/IP
4. Easy Subnetting
5. VLSMs, Summarisation, and Troubleshooting TCP/IP
6. Cisco’s Internetworking Operating System (I0S)
7. Managing a Cisco Internetwork
8. Managing Cisco Devices
9. IP Routing
10. Layer 2 Switching
11. VLANs and Inter-VLAN Routing
12. Security
13. Network Address Translation (NAT)
14. Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6)
15. Enhanced Switched Technologies
16. Network Device Management and Security
17. Enhanced IGRP
18. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) | OSPF interview questions and answers ccnp
19. Multi-Area OSPF
20. Troubleshooting IP, IPv6, and VLANs
21. Wide Area Networks
22. Evolution of Intelligent Networks
What is CCNA?
The maker of networking hardware, Cisco, offers the core information technology (IT) credential known as the Cisco Certified Network Associate, or CCNA. The CCNA is designed to confirm your comprehension of the fundamental networking ideas that are typically needed for networking duties in IT roles.
This certification aids in your familiarisation with a variety of subjects, including:
- WAN/LAN
- Routers and Switches
- IP Subnetting and Addressing
- Network Utilities (ping, arp, tracert)
- Trunking and VLANs
- Routing Protocols Like OSPF
- WLAN
- Programmability and Automation
- TCP/IP Model
- NAT and ACLs
Sample CCNA Questions
Studying alone won’t get you your Cisco Certified Networking Associate, or CCNA, certification. As opposed to that, it requires a thorough comprehension of the network basics and network security technologies included in the CCNA coursework as described by Cisco. To reflect the Cisco CCNA Routing, we have revised our CCNA practise test.
The topics covered in this sample CCNA questions practise test are those you should anticipate to see on the actual CCNA Routing and Switching exam. The sample questions give you a realistic idea of what to anticipate and are not arranged in any specific order.
CCNA Questions and Answers
On the CCNA Practice Test section, there are numerous CCNA practise questions. In addition to CCNA configuration questions, there are numerous CCNA questions and Answers. The CCNA tests in this section will assist you in learning and reviewing the CCNA MCQs. You need practical experience with Cisco routers and switches to become a CCNA. There are numerous questions about Cisco Configuration Command in the CCNA test on the quiz page. You can practice quiz is given below.
CCNA Exam Questions and Answers
You may discover numerous CCNA Test Questions on the CCNA Exam Questions and Answers page. On this website, you can find CCNA quizzes that can assist you in passing the CCNA Certification Exam. With the help of the CCNA Tests, you will refresh your prior knowledge while also learning new things.
Related Queries:
CCNA Questions and Answers pdf 2020 | CCNA Interview Questions and Answers pdf 2020-22 | CCNA question bank | CCNA exam questions and answers 2020 pdf
Chapter 1. Internetworking
CCNA Routing and Switching Interview Questions and Answers pdf
1Q. Which of the following statements are true about the device shown here? (Select all that apply.)
a. Includes one collision domain and one streaming domain.
b. Includes 10 collision domains and 10 broadcast domains.
c. Includes 10 collision domains and one broadcast domain.
d. Includes one collision domain and 10 broadcast domains.
Ans: a
2Q. With regard to the OSI model, which which of the following is the correct statement about PDUs?
a. A segment contains IP addresses .
b. A packet contains IP addresses .
c. A segment contains MAC addresses .
d. A packet contains MAC addresses .
Ans: b
3Q. You are the Cisco director of your company. The new branch office opens and you select the hardware needed to support the network. There will be two computer groups, each set by the department. Sales team computers will be assigned IP addresses from 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.50. The Accounting team will be assigned IP addresses from 10.0.0.2 to 10.0.0.50. What device should you choose to connect the two groups of computers in order for the data connection to occur?
a. Hub
b. Switch
c. Router
d. Bridge
Ans: c
4Q. The most effective way to reduce LAN congestion is …..
a. Upgrade the network network cards
b. Change the cabling to to CAT 6
c. Replace the hubs with with switches
d. Upgrade the CPUs in the the routers
Ans.
6Q. What is a function of of the WLAN Controller ?
a. Monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic
b. To automatically manage the wireless access point configuration
c. Allowing wireless devices to connect to a wired network..
d. Connecting networks and wisely choosing the best routes between networks
Ans. b
7. You need to provide network connectivity to 150 client computers that will reside in same subnetwork, and each client computer must be allocated dedicated bandwidth. Which device should you use to accomplish accomplish the task?
a. Hub
b. Switch
c. Router
d. Bridge
Ans. b
9. What is the function of a firewall?
a. Automatically handle the configuration of wireless access points
b. Allowing wireless devices to connect to a wired network
c. Monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic
d. Connecting networks and wisely choosing the best routes between networks
Ans. c
10. What is the basis for the OSI reference model which is responsible for determining the availability of a reception system and assessing whether sufficient resources are available for such communication
a. Transport
b. Nerwork
c. Presentation
d. Application
Ans. d
11. Which of the following best describes the steps of the OSI encapsulation data process? (Choose two.)
a. Transportation layer divides data distribution into segments and can add reliability and flow control information.
b. Data Link Layer adds the actual source and destination addresses and FCS section.
c. Packages are created when the Network layer includes a source framework and host addresses as well as protocol-related control information.
d. Packets are created when Network Layer adds 3rd layer addresses and control information to the component.
e. The Presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physica link.
Ans: a,d
12. Which of the following layers of the OSI model were later split into two Jave
a. Presentation
b. Transport
c. Data Link d. Physical
Ans. c
13. What is the access point function (AP)?
a. Monitoring and controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic
b. Automatically handle wireless access configuration
c. Allowing wireless devices to connect to a wireless network
d. Connecting networks and wisely choosing the best alternatives between networks.
Ans. c
14. A is an example of a device that operates only at the physical laver.
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Bridge
Ans. a
15. Which of the following is is not beneficial using a reference model??
A. Divides the network process into smaller and simpler parts.
B. Promotes industrialization.
c. Emphasizes consensus on all vendors.
d. Allows different types of network and software hardware to communicate.
Ans. c
16. Which of the following statements is is not true with regard to routers??
a. They forward broadcasts by default.
b. They can filter the network based on Network layer information.
c. They perform path selection.
d. They perform packet switching. domains. domains, and routers break up
Ans: a
17. Switches break up
a. broadcast, broadcast
b. collision, collision
c. collision, broadcast
d. broadcast, collision
Ans: c
19. Which of the following layers of the OSI model is not involved in defining how the applications within the end stations will communicate with each other as well as with users?
a. Transport
b. Application
c. Presentation
d. Session
Ans. a
20. Which of the following is the only device that works on all layers of the OSI model?
Aa. Network host
b. Switch
c. Router
d. Bridge
Ans: a
Internetworking Quiz Related Queries:
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Chapter 2. Ethernet Networking and Data Encapsulation
CISCO CCNA questions and answers | Ethernet Networking and Data Encapsulation
1. .………… on the Ethernet network a forced transmission relay delay when a a collision occurs.
A. Backoff
B. Carrier sense
C. Forward delay
D. Jamming
Ans: a
2. The network connection has a collision detection and the network company sensor is enabled on a shared network of twisted pairs. From this statement, what is known about the network port?
A. This is a 10 Mbps switch hole.
B. This is a 100 Mb / s switch.
C. This is a half-duplex Ethernet port.
D. This is a full-duplex Ethernet port.
E. This is a hole in the card interface of the network interface on the PC.
Ans: c
3Q. What are the two purposes of Ethernet protocol portable addresses? (Choose two.)
A. Identifying devices separately in Layer 2
B. To allow devices to connect to a different network
C. To differentiate a layer 2 frame from a layer 3 packet
D. Establish an important system for determining which device to access
E. Allowing connections between different devices on the same network ransmit first
F. Allow remote device detection where its physical address is unknown
Ans: a.e
4. In an Ethernet network, what two situations can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. If they receive a special signal
B. When there is a carrier
C. If they find that there are no other transmitting devices
D. When the medium is idle
E. When the server grants access
Ans: c,d
5. When configuring terminal emulation program, which of the following is an incorrect setting?
A. Bit rate: 9600
B. Parity: None
C. Flow control: None
D. Data bits: 1
Ans: d
6. Which part of a MAC address indicates whether the address is a locally or globally administered address?
A. FCS
B. I/G bit
C. OUI
D. U/L bit
Ans: d
7. Which of the following is not one of the actions taken in the operation of CSMA/CD wk a collision occurs?
A. The jam signal notifies all devices of a collision.
B. A collision calls for a random backoff algorithm for systems involved in a collision.
C. Each device in the Ethernet segment stops for a short time until its expiration time.
D. All hosts have equal priority to transmit after the timers have expired.
Ans: b
8. Which of the following statements is false with regard to Ethernet?
A. There are very few collisions in full duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch hole is required for each full duplex area.
C. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode to use full-duplex.
D. The default behavior of 10Base-T and 100Base-T hosts is 10 Mbps half-duplex if the autodetect mechanism fails.
Ans: a
9. The cable used to connect to the console port on a router or switch -cable.
A. Crossover
B. Rollover
c. Straight-through
D. Full-duplex
Ans: b
10. Which of the following items does a socket comprise?
A. IP address and MAC address
B. IP address and port number
C. Port number and MAC address
D. MAC address and DLCI
Ans: b
11. Which of the following hexadecimal numbers converts to 28 in decimal?
A. 1c
B. 12
C. 15
D.
Ans: a
chapter 2 Related Queries:
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Chapter 3. Introduction to TCP/IP
CCNA Certification Questions and Answers pdf | TCP/IP Model
1. What if a DHCP-IP conflict occurs??
A. Proxy ARP will fix fix the issue.
B. The client solves the problem using free free ARP.
C. The administrator must fix the cnaflict by hand at the DHCP server.
D. The DHCP server assigns new IP addresses to both computers.
Ans. C
2. Which of the following application layer protocols creates a Telnet-like secure session??
A. FTP
B. SSH
C. DNS
D. DHCP
Ans. B
3. Which of the following mechanisms does the client use to avoid duplicate IP addresses during the DHCP process??
A. Ping
B. Traceroute
C. Gratuitous ARP
D. Pathping
Ans. C
4. What is the protocol used to find the hardware-to-hardware address of the local device??
A. RARP
B. ARP
D. ICMP
E. BootP
Ans. B
5. Which of the following layers is in the TCP / IP model??
(Choose three )
A Application
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Internet
E Data Link
F. Physical
Ans. A,C,D
6. Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network In
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E Class E
Ans. C
7. Which of the following describes a DHCP Discover message? (Please select two.)?
A. Ir uses ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff as a layer 2 broadcast.
B. Use UDP as the transport layer protocol.
C. Use TCP as the transport layer protocol.
D. It does not use a layer 2 destination address.
Ans. A,B
8. Which Layer 4 protocol is used for Telnet connection??
A. IP 8.
B. TCP
C. TCPIP
D. UDP
E. ICMP
Ans. B
9. Private IP addressing was specified in RFC …….
Ans. RFC 1918
10. Which of the following services use TCP? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. HTTP
F. TETP
Ans. B,D,E
12. Which of the following is an example of a multicast address??
A. 10.6.9.1
B. 192.168.10.6
C. 224.0.0.10
D. 172.16.9.5
Ans. C
14. If you are using either Telnet or FTP, which layer are you using to generate the data??
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
Ans. A
15. The DoD model (also known as the TCP / IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the model corresponds to the network layer of the OSI model?
A. Application
B Host to-Host
C. Internet
D. Network Access
Ans. C
16. Which of the following is your private IP address??
A 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.11 194. 30
E. 192.168.24.43
Ans. C,E
17. Which layer of the TCP / IP stack corresponds to the transport layer of the OSI model?
A. Application
B. Host to Host
C. Internet
D. Nerwork Access
Ans. B
18. Which is the correct description for ICMP packets? (Please select two.)?
A. ICMP guarantees datagram delivery.
B. ICMP can provide hosts with information about network problems.
C. ICMP s encapsulated within IP datagrams.
D. ICMP is encapsolated within UDP datagrams.
Ans. B,C
19. What is the address range of a class B network address in binary format?
A. 01xxxxxx
B. 0xxxxxxx.
C. 10xxxxxx
D. 110xxxxx
Ans. C
Chapter 4. Easy Subnetting
Subnetting Interview Questions | IP Address Questions and Answers pdf | Subnetting Questions and Answers with Explanation pdf | Easy Subnetting
1.What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts in the local subnet using the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 30
E. 31
F. 62
Ans. D
2. I have a network that requires 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses available in each subnet. How many bits do I need to borrow from the host field to provide the correct subnet mask??
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6.
F. 7
Ans. D
3. What is the subnet address of the host whose IP address is 200.10.5.68/28?
A. 200.10.5.56
B. 200.10.5.32
C. 200.10.5.64
D. 200.10.5.0
Ans. C
4. Does the network address 172.16.0.0.0/19 provide the number of subnets and hosts?
A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each 4.
B. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
C. 7 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
D. 8 subnets, 30 hosts each
E. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
F. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
Ans. C
5. Which of the two statements describes the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Select two.)?
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The minimum host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1255.255.254.0..
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
D. The subnet’s broadcast address is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Ans. B,D
6. If the address of the host on the network is 172.16.45.14/30, which subnetwork does this host belong to??
A. 172.16.45.0
B. 172.16.45.4
C. 172.16.45.8
D. 172.16.45.12
E. 172.16.45.16
Ans. D
7. Which mask should be used for point-to-point links to detect useless IP Sasaupe?
A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30
E. /31
Ans. D
8. What is the subnet number of the host whose IP address is 172.16.66.0 / 212
A. 172.16.36.0
B. 172.16.48.0
C. 172.16.64.0
D. 172.16.0.0
Ans. C
9. The router has an interface with the IP address 192.168.192.10/29. How many hosts can have an IP address on the LAN connected to the router interface, including the router interface??
A. 6
B. 8
C. 30
D. 62
E. 126
Ans. A
10. You need to configure a server that is on the 192.168.19.24/29 subnet. The router has an initially available host address. Which of the following should be assigned to the server?
A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0
B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240
C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248
D. 192,168.19.31 255.255.255.248
E. 192.168.19.34 255.255.255.240
Ans. C
11. The router has an interface with the IP address 192.168.192.10/29. Which broadcast address does the host on this LAN use??
A. 192.168.192.15
B. 192.168.192.31
C. 192,168.192.63
D. 192.168.192.127
E. 192,168.192.255
Ans. A
12. A network with 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts, should be split into 1 subnet. Which classic subnet mask do you use??
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 2.55.255.255.224
C. 2,55.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Ans. B
13.When you configure the router interface with the IP address 192.168.10.62255.255.255.192, you receive the following error message: Wrong mask / address 192.168.10,62 26 Why did you get this error??
A. I entered this mask over a WAN link, but it is not allowed.
C. This is not a valid combination of host and subnet mask.
B. ip subnet-zero is not enabled on the router.
D. The router does not support IP.
Ans. C
14. If the router’s Ethernet port is assigned the IP address 172.16.12.12.1 / 25, what is the valid subnet address for that interface??
A. 172.16.112.0
B. 172,16.0.0
C. 172.16.96.0
D. 172.16.255.0
E. 172.16.128.0
Ans. A
16. What about IP address 50 based on the diagram in the previous question using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you must use the last available IP address in the range. Again, null Sabnet should not be considered valid for “uoasanb sa
A 192.168.10.24
B. 192.168.10.62
C. 192.168.10.30
D. 192.168.10.127
Ans. C
17. I have a network in my data center that requires 310 hosts. Which mask should I use to minimize wasted addresses??
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.253.252.0
D. 255.255.248.0
Ans. B
18.I have a network with a host address of 172.16.17.0/22. Which of the following is another valid host address on the same subnet??
A. 172,16.171 255.255.255.252
B. 172.16.01.255.255.240.0
C. 172.16 20.1 255.255 254.0
D. 172.16.16.1 235.255.255.240
E. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0
F. 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0
Ans. E
19. The IP address of Ethernet0 on the router is 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be a valid host ID on the LAN interface connected to the router? Select
A. 172.16.0.5
B. 172.16.1.100
C. 172.16.1.198
D. 172.16.2.255
E. 172.16.3.0
F. 172.16.3.255
Ans. D,E
20. What is the correct network address for the IP address 172.16.28.252 with the subnet mask 255.255.240.0??
A. 172.16.16.0
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.24.0
D. 172.16.28.0
Ans. A
Chapter 5. VLSMs, Summarisation, and Troubleshooting TCP/IP
ccna certification exam questions and answers | VLSMs, Summarisation, and Troubleshooting TCP/IP
1. Which mask should be used in the VLSM network for point-to-point WAN connections to reduce IP address waste??
A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30
E. /31
Ans. D
2. What features does your routing protocol require to be able to use VLSM??
A. Support for multicast
B. Multiprotocol support
C. Transmission of subnet mask information
D. Support for unequal load balancing
Ans. C
3. If you know that the host is configured with the wrong default gateway and all other computers and routers are configured correctly, which of the following instructions is correct?
A. Host A cannot communicate with the router.
B. Host A can communicate with other hosts on the same subnet.
C. Host A can communicate with hosts on other subnets.
D. Host A cannot communicate with other systems.
Ans. B
4. If successful, which of the following troubleshooting steps will ensure that the other steps are also successful??
A. Ping a remote computer.
B. Ping the loopback address.
C. Ping the NIC.
D. Ping the default gateway.
Ans. A
5. What can I expect if the ping to the IP address of the local host fails??
A. The IP address of the local host is incorrect.
B. The IP address of the remote host is incorrect.
C.NIC does not work.
D. The IP stack could not be initialized.
Ans. C
6. If the ping to the IP address of the local host is successful, but the ping to the IP address of the default gateway is successful, what can be excluded? (Please select all that apply.)?
A. The IP address of the local host is incorrect (not correct).
B. The gateway IP address is incorrect.
C. The network card does not work.
D. The IP stack could not be initialized.
Ans. C,D
7. What network service most likely problem if you can ping a computer by IP address but not by name?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Ans. A
8. What protocol are you using when issuing the ping command??
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Ans. D
9. Which of the following commands will display the network that has passed the path to the network destination??
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. pingroute
D. pathroute
Ans. B
10. Which command produced the output shown below??
Reply from 172.16.10.2: bytes=32 time<lms TTL-128
Reply from 172.16.10.2: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128
Reply from 172.16.10.2: bytes=32 time<lms TTL=128
Reply from 172.16.10.2: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL-128
A. traceroute
B. show ip route
C. ping
D. pathping
Ans. C
11. Which of the following network addresses correctly and efficiently summarizes the three networks listed below? 10.0.0.0/16 10.1.0.0/16 10.2.0.0/16
A. 10.0.0.0/15
B. 10.1.0.0/8
C. 10.0.0.0/14
D. 10.0.0.8/16
Ans. C
12. Which command displays the ARP table for the Cisco router??
A. show ip arp
B. traceroute
C. arp -a
D. tracert
Ans. A
13. What switch must be added to the ipconfig command on a PC to verify DNS configuration
A. /dns
B. -dns
C. /all
D. showall
Ans. C
14. Which of the following is the best summary of the following networks: 192.168.128.0 to 192.168.159.0?
Ans. C
Chapter 6. Cisco’s Internetworking Operating System (I0S)
CCNA CCNP Interview Questions and Answers | CISCO CCNA MCQ
1. You type show interfaces fae/1 and get this output: 275496 packets input, 35226811 bytes, θ no buffer Received 69748 broadcasts (58822 multicasts) θ runts,θ giants, θ throttles 111395 input errors, 511987 CRC, θ frame,θ overrun, @ ignored θ watchdog, S8822 multicast, θ pause input θ input packets with dribble condition detected 2392529 packets output, 337933522 bytes, θ underruns θ output errors, θ collisions, 1 interface resets θ babbles, θ late collision, θ deferred θ lost carrier, θ no carrier, θ PAUSE output θ output buffer failures, θ output buffers swapped out What’s wrong with this interface?
A. Difference in speed from a directly connected interface
B. Collisions causing CRC errors
C. Frames received are too large
D. Interference on the Ethernet cable
Ans. D
2. The output of the show running-config command comes from
A. NVRAM
B. Flash
C. RAM
D. Firmware
Ans. C
3. Which two of the following commands are required when configuring SSH on your routeri (Choose two.) 3.
A. enable secret password
B. exec-timeout θ θ
C. ip domain-name
D. usernane name password password
E. ip ssh version 2
Ans. C,D
4. Whch command will show you whether a DTE or a DCE cable is plugged into serial on your router’s WAN port?
A. sh int sθ/θ
B. sh int serialθ/θ
C. show contrellers sθ/θ
D. show sertalθ/θ controllers
Ans. C
6. Using the given output, what type of interface is shown? Hardware is MV96340 Ethernet, address is (bia θθ1a.2f55.c9e8) Internet address is 192.168.1.33/27 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1θθθθθe Kbit, DLY 1θθ usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
A. 10 Mb
B. 100 Mb
C. 1000 Mb
D. 1000 MB
Ans. B
7. Which of the following commands configures all standard VTY ports on the switch??
A. Switchaline vty θ 4
B. Switch(config)#line vty@ θ 4
C. Switch(config-if)#line console θ
D. Switch(config) #line vty all
Ans. B
8. If you wanted administrators to see a message when logging into the switch, which com Which of the following commands sets the privileged mode password to Cisco wnd enrypts the password?
A. enable secret password Cisco
B. enable secret cisco
C. enable secret Cisco
D. enable password Cisco
Ans. C
9. If you wanted administrators to see a message when logging into the switch, which command would you use? 1
A. message banner motd
B. banner message motd
C. banner motd
D. message motd
Ans. C
10. Which of the following prompts indicates that the switch is currently in privileged mode??
A. Switch(config) #
B. Switch>
C. Switch#
D. Switch (config-if)
Ans. C
11. What command do you type to save the configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM?
A. Switch (config) #copy current to starting
B. Switch#copy starting to running
C. Switch(config) #copy running-config startup-config
D. Switch#copy run start
Ans. D
12. You try to telnet into SF from router Corp and receive this message: Corp#telnet SF Trying SF (10.θ.θ.1)…Open Password required, but none set [Connection to SF closed by foreign host] Corp# Which of the following sequences will address this problem correctly?
A. Corp(config) #line console θ Corp(config-line) #password password Corp(config-line) #login
B. SF config) #line console θ SF (config-line) #enable secret password SF (config-line) #login
C. Corp(config) #line vty θ 4 Corp(config-line)#password password Corp(config-line) #login
D. SF(config)#line vty θ 4 SF (config-line) #password password SF(config-line) #login
Ans. D
13. Which command clears the contents of the switch NVRAM??
A. delete NVRAM
B. delete startup-config
C. erase flash
D. erase startup-config
E. erase start
Ans. C
14. What is the problem with an interface if you type show interface gθ/1 and receive following message? Gigabit 0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
A. The keepalives are different times.
B. The administrator has the interface shut down.
C. The administrator is pinging from the interface.
D. No cable is attached.
Ans. B
15. Which command clears the contents of the switch NVRAM?
A. show running-config
B. show startup-config
C. show interfaces
D. show versions
Ans. C
16. If yau delete the contents of NVRAM and reboot the switch, what mode will you be in?
A. Privileged mode
B. Global mode
C. Setup mode
D. NVRAM loaded mode
Ans. C
17. Copy the following command to the switch and receive the following output. Switch # show fast ethernet θ / 1
A. You need to be in privileged mode.
B. You cannot have a space between fastethernet and θ/1
C. The switch does not have a FastEthernet 0/1 interface.
D. Part of the command is missing .
Ans. D
18. When I type Switch # sh r, I get a% ambiguous command error. Why did you receive this message??
A. The command requires additional options or parameters.
B. There are multiple show commands that start with the letter r.
C. There are no show commands that start with r.
D. The command was executed in the wrong mode.
Ans. B
19. Which of the following commands displays the current IP address of the interface and the status of Layers 1 and 2? (Choose two.)
A. show version
B. show interfaces
C. show controllers
D. show ip interface
E. show running-config
Ans. B,D
20. At which layer of the OSI model would you assume the problem is if you type show interface serial i and receive the following message? Seriali is down, line protocol is down
A. Physical layer
B. Data Link layer
C. Network layer
D. None; it is router problem.
Ans. A
Chapter 7. Managing a Cisco Internetwork
Advance Computer Network MCQ | Managing a Cisco Internetwork
1. Which of the following is a standards-based protocol that enables dynamic network discovery??
A. DHCP
B. LLDP
C. DDNS
D. SSTP
E. CDP
Ans. B
2. Which commands can be used to determine the CPU utilization of the router??
A. show version
B. show controllers
C. show processes cpu
D. show memory
Ans. C
3. I’m troubleshooting a corporate network connectivity issue and want to isolate the issue. It seems that the router is heading for a network that is inaccessible: malfunction. Which iOS User Exec command should I issue??
A. Router>ping
B. Router>trace
C. Router>show ip route
D. Router>show interface
E. Router>show cdp neighbors
Ans. B
4. Copy the configuration from the network host to the router’s RAM. The configuration looks correct, but it doesn’t work at all. What’s wrong??
A. You copied the wrong configuration to RAM.
B. Instead, I copied the settings to flash memory.
C. The copy did not overwrite the shutdown config shutdown command.
D. IOS is corrupted after the copy command is started.
Ans. C
5. What does the IP address 10.10.10.254 refer to in the following command??
Router#config t
Router (config) #interface fae/e
Router (config-if)#ip helper-address 1θ.1θ.1θ.254
A. IP address of the ingress interface on the router ilano
B. IP addrass of the egress interface on the router
C. Next hop IP address on the path to the DHCP server
D. IP address of the DHCP server
Ans. D
6. The office of the company will send you a new router for connection, but when you plug in the console cable, you will see that the router is already configured. What should I do before entering new settings on the router??
A. You need to clear the RAM and restart the router.
B. Flash should be erased and the router restarted.
C. NVRAM should be erascd and the router restarted.
D. The new configuration should be entered and saved.
Ans. C
7. Which command can I use to find the IP address of a directly connected neighbor??
A. show cdp
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show cdp neighbors detail
D. spow neighbor detail
Ans. C
9. Which of the following commands enables syslog on the Cisco debug device??
A. syslog 172.16.1θ.1
B. logging 172.16.1θ.1
C. remote console 172.16.1θ.1 syslog debugging
D. transmit console messages level 7 172.16.1θ.1
Ans. B
10. Save the configuration router using the command copy running config startupconfig and reboot the router. However, the router comes with an empty setting. What’s wrong??
A. You didn’t boot the router with the correct command.
B. NVRAM is corrupted.
C. The contiguration register setting is incorrect.
D. The newly updated IOS is not compatible with the router hardware.
E. The saved configuration is not compatible with the hardware.
Ans. C
11. Which keyboard shortcut do you use if you want to open multiple Telnet sessions at the same time?
A. Tab-spacebar
B. Ctrl-X, then 6
C. Crl+Shift+X, then 6
D. CtrleShift+6, then X
Ans. D
12. The Telnet connection from the switch to the remote device will fail, but you can make the Telnet connection to the router faster. However, you can ping the remote device. What’s wrong? (Please select two.)
A. IP addresses are incorrect.
B. Access control list is filtering Telnet.
C. There is a defective serial cable.
D. The VTY password is missing
Ans. B,D
13. What information does the show hosts command display? (Please select two.)
A. Temporary DNS entries
B. The names of the routers created using the hostnanme command
C. IP address of a workstation that is allowed access to the router
D. Persistent name-to-address mapping created by the iphost command
E. Time when the host was connected to the router via Telnet
Ans. A,D
14. Which of the three commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity issues on enterprise switches? (Please select three.)
A. show interfaces
B. show ip route
C. tracert
D. ping
E. dns lookups
Ans. A,B,D
15. What is the default syslog facility level?
A. local4
B. local5
C. local6
D. local7
Ans. D
16. I telnet to a remote device and type debug ip icmp, but there is no output from the debue command. What’s wrong??
A. You must first enter the show ipicmp command.
B. The network IP address is incorrect.
C. You need to use the Terminal Monitor command.
D. Debug output is only sent to the console.
Ans. C
17. Which of the three statements about using syslog is correct? (Please select three.)?
A. Utilizing syslog improves network performance.
B. The syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C. The syslog server provides the space needed to store log files without running out of router hard drive space.
D. Cisco IOS allows you to use more syslog messages than equivalent SNMP trap messages.
E. When you enable syslog on your router, NTP is automatically enabled to get the correct time stamp.
Ans. C,D,F
18. You need to find the IP address of the remote switch in Hawaii. What can I do to find my address??
A. Fly to Hawai, console into the switch, then relax and have a drink with an umbrella in
B. Issue the show ip route command on the router connected to the switch.
C. Issue the show cdp neighborhood command on the router connected to the switch.
D. Issue the show iparp command on the router connected to the switch.
E. Issue the show cdp neighbors detail command on the router connected to the switch
Ans. E
19. All routers and switches must be configured to synchronize clocks from a single time source. Which command do you enter for each device?
A. clock synchronization ip_address
B. ntp master ip_address
C. sync ntp ip_address
D. ntp server ip_address version number
Ans. D
20. A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap . What are three message types that will be sent to the syslog server? (Choose three.)
A. Informational
B. Emergency
C. Warning
D. Critical
E. Debug
F. Error
Ans. B,D,F
Chapter 8. Managing Cisco Devices
Managing Cisco Devices | MCQ on Network Topology | Network Security MCQ with Answers pdf
1. What does the command confregex2142 provide?
A. Used to restart the router.
B. Used to bypass NVRAM settings.
C. Ir is used to enter ROM monitor mode.
D. It is used to confirm that you have lost your password.
Ans: b
2. Which command does IOS copy to the backup host on the network?
A. Transfer IOS to 172.16.10.1.
B. Copy execution will start.
C. Flash tftp copy
D. Start tftpcopy
E. flash copy tftp
Ans: e
3. Which command is used to permanently install the license on the ISR2 router?
A. License installation
B. License installation
C. Boot system license
D. Boot license module
Ans: b
4. Enter the following in the router to reload. What should a router do?
Router (configuration) boot system flash c28θθnmadvsecurityk9nz.1514. M6.bin
Router (config) configregister θx21 θ1
Router (config) de sh ver [Output cut] The configuration register is θx21 θ2 (it will be θx21 θ1 at the next reload).
A. The router extends and runs c2800nnadvsecuritykgnz. 1514. M6. Bin IOS from flash memory.
B. The router goes into setup mode.
C. The router loads the miniIOS from ROM.
D. The router goes into ROM monitor mode.
Ans: c
5. The network administrator wants to update the IOS of the router without removing the currently installed image. Which command indicates the storage capacity of the current IOS image and whether there is enough space for the current image and the new image?
A. Display version
B. Display flash
C. Display memory
D. Display bufferDisplay
E. runningconfigreply
Ans: b
6. Headquarters will send you a new router for connection, but when you connect the Consoie cable, you will see that the router is already configured. What do I need to do before entering the new settings on the router?
A. You need to clear the RAM and restart the router.
B. You need to erase the flash and restart the router.
C. You need to clear NVRAM and restart the router.
D. You will need to enter and save the new configuration.
Ans: c
7. Which command loads the new version of Cisco IOS into the router?
A. Flash copy ftp
B. Copy nvram flash
C. Copy flash tftp
D. Copy tftp flash
Ans: d
8. Which command will display the version of iOS that your router is running?
A. sh IOS
B.sh Flash
C.sh version
D. sh log
Ans: c
What happens to the configuration registers after successfully completing the password recovery procedure and returning the router to normal operation?
A. Ox2100
B. Ox2101
C. Ox2102
D. Ox2142
Ans: c
10. Save the configuration on the router using the start command copyrunningconfig and reboot the router. However, the router comes with an empty part. What’s wrong?
A. You have not started the router with the correct command.
B. NVRAM is corrupted.
C. The configuration register settings are incorrect.
D. The newly updated 1OS is not compatible with the router hardware.
E. The saved configuration is not compatible with the hardware.
Ans: c
11. Which command installs the RightToUse license so that you can use the trial version of the feature?
A. Install the RightToUse licensed feature
B. Install the temporary feature
C. License installation function
D. License start module
Ans: d
12. Which command determines the active license and some status variables on the system?
A. View License
B. View License Features
C. View License udi
D. View version
Ans: a
13. Which command can I use to display the technology pack licenses and feature licenses supported by the router, along with some status variables?
A. Display license
B. Display license function
C. Display license udi
D. Show version
Ans: b
14. Which command displays a unique device identifier consisting of the router’s product ID and serial number?
A. Show license
B. Displays license function
C. Udi to display the license.
D. Show version
Answer C
15. Which command displays various information about the current IOS version, such as the last license leak in the command output?
A. View License
B. View License Features
C. View License udi
D. View version
Ans: d
16. Which command saves the license to flash memory?
A. Copy the TFTP flash
B. Save the license flash
C. Save the license Flash
D. Copy license flash
Ans: c
17. Which command indicates the configuration register settings?
A. Display the IP route
B. Shows boot version
C. Display version
D. Show flash
Ans: c
18. What are the two steps to remove a license from your router? (Please select two.)
A. flash: Use the delete license command.
B. Reload the system.
C. Use the licenseboot command with the disable variable at the end of the command line.
D. To remove the license, use the license clear command.
Ans: c,d
19th I connected my laptop directly to the router’s Ethernet port. Which of the following is required for the copy flash tftp command to succeed? (Please select three.)
A. The TFTP server software must be running on the router.
B. The TFTP server software must be running on your laptop.
C. The Ethernet cable that connects your laptop directly to the router’s Ethernet port must be a straight cable.
D. The laptop must be in the same subnet as the router’s Ethernet interface.
E. The command copyflash tftp must specify the IP address of your laptop.
F. You need enough space in the router’s flash memory to copy the files.
Ans: b,d,e
20. How does the 0x2102 configuration register setting affect the router?
A. Instruct the router to boot in ROM monitor mode.
B. Provides password recovery.
C. Tells the router to look for the boot sequence in NVRAM.
D. Boot IOS from the TFTP server.
E. Boot the IOS image stored in ROM.
Ans:
Chapter 9. IP Routing
IP Routing
1. You are viewing the routing routing table and you see an entry 10.1.1.1/32. What legend code do you expect other than this route?
A. C
B. L
C. S
D. D
Ans: b
3. Which of the following statements about the command iproute 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0192.168.4.2 is correct? (Please select two.)
A. The command is used to establish a static route.
B. The default administrative distance is used.
C. This command is used to configure the default route.
D. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0.
E. This command is used to set up a stub network.
Ans: a,b
6. Which of the following is called the Extended Distance Vector Routing Protocol??
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. RIP
Ans: b
7. If the packet is routed over the network, …….. in the packet changes from hop to hop, but …….. does not?
A. MAC address, IP address
B. IP address, MAC address
C. Port number, IP address
D. IP address, port number
Ans: a
8. Which is the correct description for the classless routing protocol? (Please select two.)
A. You are not allowed to use the disconnected network.
B. You are allowed to use variable length subnet masks.
C. RIPV1 is a classless routing protocol.
D. IGRP supports classless routing within the same autonomous system.
E. RIPV2 supports classless routing.
Ans: b,e
9. A. The link state periodically sends a complete routing table for all active interfaces?
A. Link state sends its complete routing routing table out of all all active interfaces at periodic time intervals.
B. Distance Vector sends the complete routing table from all active interfaces at regular time intervals.
C. The link state sends an update, including the status of its link, to all routers on the network.
D. Distance Vector uses its own link status to send updates to all routers on the network.
Ans: b, c
10. When a router looks up up the the destination in the routing table for every single packet, it is called……
A. dynamic switching
B. fast switching
C. process switching
D. Cisco Express Forwarding
Ans: c
11. What type(s) of route is the following? (Choose all that apply) S* e.θ.θ.θ/θ [1/θ] via 172.16.1θ.5
A. Default
B. Subnetted
C. Static
D. Local
Ans: a,c
12. The network administrator displays the output of the show iproute command. Networks advertised by both RIP and EIGRP are marked as EIGRP routes in the routing table. Why are/is the RIP route to this network not used in the routing table?
A. EIGRP has a faster update timer.
B. EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.
C. RIP has a higher metric value for that route.
D. The EIGRP route has/have fewer hops.
E. The RIP path has a routing loop..
Ans: b
13. What are the benefits of static routing??
A. Less overhead on the router CPU
B. No bandwidth usage between routers
C. Adds security
D. Recovers automatically from lost routes
Ans: d
14. Which metric does RIPV2 use to find the best path to the remote network??
A. Hop count B. MTU
C. Cumulative interface delay
D. Load
E. Path bandwidth value
Ans: a
16. If the routing table has static routes, RIP routes, and EIGRP routes to the same network, what is the default route used to route the packets?
A. Any available route
B. RIP route
C. Static route
D. EIGRP route
E. They will all load-balance.
Ans: c
17. Which of the following is an EGP?
A. RIPV2
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. RIP
Ans: c
18. Which of the following is the advantage of static routing?
A. Less overhead on the router CPU
B. No bandwidth usage between routers
C. Adds security
D. Recovers automatically from lost routes .
Ans: a,b,c
The 20th What does 150 at the end of the following command mean?
Router (config) #ip route 172.16.3.e 255.255.255.θ 192.168.2.4 15θ
A. Metric
B. Administrative distance
C. Hop count
D. Cost
Ans: b
Related Queries:
static and dynamic routing | difference between static routing and dynamic routing | static routing and dynamic routing
Chapter 10 Layer 2 Switching
Layer 2 Switching Quiz | CCNA Online Quiz
1. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to layer 2 switching?
A. Layer 2 switches and bridges are faster than routers because they take less time to see the datalink layer header information.
B. Layer 2 switches and bridges look ahead, flood, or drop frames. Hardware address of the frame before determination
C. The switch creates its own dedicated collision domain and provides independent bandwidth for each port.
D. The switch builds and maintains a MAC filter table using application-specific integrated circuits (ASICS).
Ans: a
7. Write a command that limits the number of MAC addresses allowed on a port to two. Just write the command, not the command prompt.
Ans: Switch port port-security maximum 2
9. What if the following is not an STP issue?
A. Broadcast storms
B. Gateway redundancy
C. Devices that receive multiple copies of the same frame
D. Continuous update of MAC filter table
Ans: B
11. which two of the following switch port violation modes will alert you via SNMP that a violation has occurred on a port?
A. restrict
B. protect
C. shutdown
D. err-disable
Ans: B,C
12. ………is the loop avoidance mechanism used by switches.
Ans: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
13. Write the command that must be present on any switch that you need to manage from different subnet.
Ans: IP Default-Gateway
14. Which is the standard interface that configures the switch IP address?
A. int faθ/θ
B. int vty θ
C. int vlan 1
D. int s/θ/θ
Ans: C
15. What is the Cisco IOS command used to verify the port security settings for the switch port?
A. show interfaces port-security
B. show port-security interface
C. show ip interface
D. show interfaces switchport
Ans: B
16. Write the command that will save a dynamically learned MAC address in the running configuration of a Cisco switch?
Ans: Switch port port-security mac-address sticky
17. Which of the following methods will allow only specific hosts to connect to port FO/3 of the switch? (Choose two. Each correct answer is a separate solution.)
A. Configure security on FO/3 to accept traffic other than that of the MAC addrece of the host.
B. Configure the MAC address of the host as a static entry associated with port FO/3.
C. Set the inbound access control list to port FO / 3 to limit traffic to the host’s IP address.
D. Configure port security on FO/3 to accept rraffic only from the MAC address of the Fost.
Ans: B,D
18. How does running the following command affect port FO / 1?
switch(config-1f)A switchport port-security mac-address 0oco.35F0.8381
A. This command configures an incoming access control list on port FO / 1 and limits traffic to the host’s IP address.
B. The command expressly, prohibits the MAC address of 00c0.35F0.8301 as an allowed host on the switch port.
C. The command encrypts all traffic on the port from the MAC address of 00c0.35F0.8301.
D. The command statically defines the MAC address of 00c0.35FO.8301 as an allowed host on the switch port.
Ans: D
19th The meeting room has switch ports that presenters can use during the class, and each presenter uses the same PC connected to the port. You need to prevent other PCs from using this port. I have completely removed the previous configuration to resume. Which of the following steps is not necessary to prevent other PCs from using this port?
A. Enable port security.
B. Assign the MAC address of the PC to the port.
C. Make the port an access port.
D. Make the port a trunk port.
Ans: D
20. Describes the commands required to disable the port in the event of a security breach. Just write the command, not the command prompt.
Ans: switchport port-security violation shutdown
Chapter 11 VLANs and Inter-VLAN Routing
Virtual lan | Creating vlan in cisco switch | Creating vlan cisco | VLANs and Inter-VLAN Routing
1. Which of the following statements about VLANs is correct?
A. VLANS greatly reduce network security.
B. VLANs increase the number of collision domains while reducing their size.
C. VLANs reduce the number of broadcast domains while reducing their size.
D. Network expansion, shifts, and changes can be easily achieved by configuring ports in the corresponding VLANs.
Ans. D
2. Write the command that must be present on this Layer 3 switch to provide inter-VLAN routing between the two VLANs created by the following command.
S1(config)#int vlan 1θ
S1(config-if) #ip address 192.168.1θ.1 255.255.255.θ
S1(config-if)#int vlan 2θ
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.2θ.1 255.255.255.θ
A. Access port
B. 10 GB
C. Trunk
D. Spanning
Ans. ip routing
4. Which type of second VLAN can the access port be a member of?
A. Secondary
B. Voice
C. Primary
D. Trunk
Ans. B
5. Which command is missing in the following configuration when creating a VLAN interface?
296θ#config t
296θ (config)# int vlan 1
2960 (config-if)#ip address 192.168.1θ.2 255.255.255.θ
2960 (config-if) #exit
2960 (config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1θ.1
A. no shutdown under int vlan 1
B. encapsulation dotig 1 under int vlan 1
C. switchport access vlan 1
D. passive-interface
Ans. A
6. Which of the following is the correct description for ISL and 802.1q?
A. 802.1q encapsulates the control information frame. ISL inserts ISL fields with tag control information. B.802.1q is unique to Cisco.
B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
C. ISL uses control information to encapsulate the frame. 802.1g inserts an 802.1q field with tag control information.
D. ISL is a standard.
Ans. C
8. Write a command to place the interface on the VLAN. 2. Write only the command, not the prompt
Ans. switchport access vlan 2
11. Which statement is correct based on the configuration shown here?
S1(config) #ip routing
S1(config)#int vlan 18
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1θ.1 255.255.255.θ
S1(config-if)zint vlan 2θ
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.2θ.1 255.255.255.θ
A. This is a multilayer switch.
B. The two VLANs are in the same subnet.
C. Encapsulation must be configured.
D. VLAN 10 is the management VLAN.
Ans. A
13. An untagged 802.1q frame is … a member of a VLAN.
A. Auxiliary
B. Voice
C. Native
D. Private
Ans. C
15. How many broadcast domains do you see in the switching output of Question 12?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1001
Ans. C
17. What is frame tagging used in a virtual LAN configuration (VLAN)?
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Fneryprion of network packets
C. Frame identification over trunk links
D. Frame identification over access links
Ans. C
18. Write a command to create VLAN2 on the layer 2 switch. Just write the command, not the command prompt.
Ans. vlan 2
19. Which is the correct description for tagging 802.1q frames?
A. 802.19 adds a 26-byte trailer and 4-byte header.
B. 802.1q uses a native VLAN.
C. The original Ethernet frame is unchanged.
D. 802.1g only works with Cisco switches.
Ans. B
20. Write a command that prevents the interface from generating DTP frames. Just write the command, not the command prompt.
Ans. switchport nonegotiate
voip vlan | ieee 802.1 ad | trunks cisco | vlan diagrams | cisco vlan command | nac vlan | virtual lan | vlan home network | vlan for dummies | creating vlan cisco
Chapter 13 Network Address Translation (NAT)
Network Address Translation (NAT) MCQ | Advance Computer Network MCQ
1. Which of the following is a dwarf when using NAT? (Please select three)
A. The transmission causes a shift travel delay.
B. NAT keeps the legally registered address.
C. Network address translation loses end-to-end IP traceability.
D. NAT gives you more flexibility when connecting to the Internet.
E. Certain applications will not work if NAT is enabled.
F. NAT reduces the occurrence of duplicate addresses.
Ans: A
2. Which of the following is the benefit of using NAT? (Please select three.)
A. The transmission leads to a delay in shift travel.
B. NAT maintains a legally registered address.
C. Network address translation loses end-to-end IP traceability.
D. NAT gives you more flexibility when connecting to the Internet.
E. Certain applications will not work if NAT is enabled.
F. NAT corrective action addresses the occurrence of duplication.
Ans: B,D,F
3. Which commands can display real-time translations on the router?
A. View ipnat transformations
B. View ipnat statistics
C. Debug ipnat
D. Clear IP NAT conversion
Ans: C
4. Which command will help you see all the translations active on your router?
A. Show ip-nat translation
B. View IP-Nat Statistics
C. Debug IP-Nat
D. Remove IP-Nat Translation
Ans: A
5. Which command helps remove all active translations on the router?
A. Shows the conversion of ipnat
B. Shows the statistics of ipnat
C. debug ip nat
D. clear ip nat translations
Ans D.
6. Which command sends a NAT configuration summary?
A. Shows the conversion of ipnat
B. Shows the statistics of ipnat
C. debug ip nat
D. clear ip nat translations
Answer B
8. Which of the following is the NAT method? (Please choose three)
A. Static
B. IPNAT pool
C. dynamic
D.NAT double translation
E. overload
Answer A,C,E
9. Do you use n-netmask when creating a pool of global addresses? Which of the following options can be used instead of the netmask command?
A. / (slash notation)
B. Prefix length
C. No mask
D. Block size
Answer B
10. If your router has not been converted, which of the following is a good starting point for troubleshooting?
A. Reboot.
B. Call Cisco.
C. Check the interface for the correct configuration.
D. Execute the Debugall command.
Ans: c
11. What is the reason for NAT? (Please select three.)
A. You need to be connected to the internet and the host does not have a globally unique IP address.
B. You are moving to a new ISP that needs to be renumbered on your network.
C. It is not desirable for the host to connect to the internet.
D. To merge, you need two interacts with duplicate addresses.
Answers: A,B,D
12. Which address is considered the internal host’s address after translation?
A. In Local
B. Outside Local
C. In Global
D. Outside the global
Ans: C
13. What is the address of the internal host before conversion?
A. In the facility
B. Outside local
C. Inside global
D. Outside global
Ans: A
15. Internal locals are not translated to internal global addresses. Which command indicates whether the internal global is allowed to use the NAT pool?
ip nat pool Corp 198.18.41.129 198.18.41.134 netmask 255.255.255.248
ipnat source list 1θθintsθ / θCorp overload
A. debug ip nat
B. display access list
C. display ip nat translation
D. View IP-NAT statistics
Ans: B
16. Which command should you place on the private network interface?
A. IPnat inside
B. ipnat external
C.ip external global
D.ip internal local
Ans: A
17 Which command is placed on the interface connected to the Internet?
A. ip nat inside
B. ip nat external
C. ip outside global
D. ip inside local
Answer: B
18. Is any port address translation known?
A.NAT fast
B.NAT static
C.NAT overload
D. Static overload
Ans: C
19. What does the asterisk (*) in the output below mean?
NAT: s172.16.2.2, d = 192.168.2.1> 10.1.1.1 [1]
A. The packet was targeted at the router’s local interface.
B. The packet has been translated and fast switched to the destination.
C. I tried to translate a package, but it failed.
D. The package was converted, but there was no response from the remote host.
Ans: B
20. Which of the following must be added to the configuration to enable PAT?
ip nat pool Corp 198.18.41.129 198.18.41.134 netmask255.255.255.248 Access list 1 Permissions 192.168.76.64θ.θ.θ.31
A. Ipnat pool in overload
B. ipnat1 pool Corp overload in source list
C. ipnat pool outside overload
D. ipnat pool Corp198.41.129net 255.255.255.θ Overload
Ans: B
Chapter 14. Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6)
Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) MCQs | Cisco CCNA Quiz
1. How to create an EUI64 format interface ID from a 48-bit MAC address?
A. By adding 0XFF to the MAC address
B. By prefixing the MAC address with OXFFEE
C. Prefix the MAC address with OXFF and add O × FF
D. Insert 0XFFFE between the upper 3 bytes and lower 3 bytes of the MAC address
E. Prefix the MAC address with OxF and every first 3 bytes Insert OxF into
Answer D.
2. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001：0000：130F：099a：12a
B. 2002：7654：A1AD：61：81AF：CCC1
C. FECO：ABCD：WXYZ：0067：2A4
D. 2004：1：25A4：886F :: 1
Ans D.
3. Which of the three statements about the IPv6 prefix is correct? (Please select three.)
A. FF00: / 8 is used for IPv6 multicast.
B. FE80 :: / 10 is used for link-local unicast.
C. FC00: / 7 is used in private networks.
D. 2001: 1/227 is used for the loopback address.
E. FE80: / 8 is used for link-local unicast.
F. FECO: / 10 is used for IPv6 broadcasts.
Ans A,B,C
4. What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPV4 addressing scheme to an IPV6 scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Enable dualstack routing.
B. Configure IPv6 directly.
C. Configure an IPv4 tunnel between IPv6 islands.
D. Use proxies and translations to convert IPv6 packets to IPv4 packets.
E. Statically assign an IPv4 address to an IPv6 address.
F. Use DHCPV6 to map an IPv4 address to an IPv6 address.
Ans A, C, D
5. Which of the two explanations for IPv6 router commercials is correct? (Please select two.)
A. I am using ICMPV6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64-bit.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. Obtained from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. The destination is always the link-local address of the adjacent node.
Answers A and B
6. Which of the following is the correct explanation when describing an IPv6 anycast address?
A. One to many communication model
B. One to n oldest communication model
C. Any to many communication model
D. Unique IPV6 address for each device in Group
E. The same address of multiple devices in group delivery of a package to the group interface closest to sending device
F.
Answers B, E, F
7. Ping the loopback address of the local IPv6 host. What do you put in?
A. ping 127.8.e.1
B. ping e.e.e.e
C. ping :: 1
D. trace 0.0.::1
Ans C.
8. What are the three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Please select three.)
A. Optional IPsec automatic configuration
B. No broadcast
D. Complex Header
E. Plug and Play
F. Checksum
Answers B, C, E
9. Which of the two statements describes the properties of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000:/3.
B. Linklocal addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00 :: / 10,
D. There is only one loopback address, which is 1.
E. If the interface is assigned a global address, this is the only address allowed for the interface.
Answer A, D
10. The host sends a router request (RS) over Dara-Link. Which destination address is specified in this request?
A. FF02 :: A
B. FF02: 9
C. FF02: 2
D. FF02: 1
E. FF02 :: 5 days
11. What are the two reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPV4? (Please select two)
A. No broadcast
B. Changing the source address of the IPv6 header
C. Changing the destination address of the IPv6 header
D. No password required for Telnet access
E. Automatic configuration
F.NAT
Ans. A, E
12. The host sends a sort of NDP message using the requested MAC address. What NDP was sent?
A. Not applicable
B. RS
C. RA
D. NS
Answer A
13. What is IPv6 called “on one-arest” addressing?
A. Global unicast
B. Anycast
C. Multicast
D. Unspecified address
Ans. B.
14. Which of the following statements about IPv6 addresses is correct? (Please select two.)
A. Leading zero is required.
B. Two colons (: 🙂 are used to represent consecutive hexadecimal fields containing zeros.
C. Two colons (:) are used to separate the fields.
D. A single interface has multiple IPv6 addresses of different types.
Answers B, D
15. What are the three simpler ways IPv6 headers are than IPv4 headers? (Please select three)
A. Unlike IPV4 headers, IPV6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses extended headers instead of IPv4 fragmentation fields.
C. The IPv6 header removes the IPv4 checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use fragment offset fields instead of IPV4 fragmentation fields.
E. IPv6 headers use smaller radio button sizes than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use 4-bit TTL fields and IPv4 headers use 8-bit TTL fields.
Answer A,B,C
16. Which of the following IPv6 descriptions is correct?
A. Addresses are randomly assigned, not hierarchical.
B. Broadcasts have been removed and replaced by multicast. There are
C.2.7 billion addresses.
D. Interfaces can only be configured with IPv6 addresses
Answer B
17. How many hits are there in the IPv6 address field?
A.24
B. 4
C. 3
D. 16
E. 32
F. 128 year.
D.
18 Which of the following correctly describes the IPv6 unicast address properties? (Choose two.
A. Global addresses start with 2000 :: / 3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FF00 :: / 10. Link-local addresses start with FE00: / 12.
D. There is only one loopback address, which is 1.
Ans A,D
19. Which of the following statements are true of IPV6 address representation? (Choose two).
A. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
B. You can assign multiple IPv6 addresses of any type to a single interface.
C. All IPv6 interfaces contain at least one loopback address.
D. Leading zeroes in an IPV6 16bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Ans. B,C
20. Which command enables IPV6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. IPv6 Local
B. IPv6 Host
C. IPv6 Unicast Routing
D. IPv6 Neighbor
Answer C
Chapter 15. Enhanced Switched Technologies
1. Which is the correct description for this switch? (Please select two.)
A. The switch is the root bridge.
B. The switch is a non-root bridge.
C. The root bridge is separated from the four switches.
D. The switch operates at 802.1w.
E. The switch is running STP PVST +.
Answers B, D
2. You configured the switch using the commands Spanningtreevlan x rootPrimary and Spanningtreevlan x rootSecondary. If both switches fail, which of the following tertiary switches will take over?
A. Switch with priority 4096
B. Switch with priority 8192
C. Switch with priority 12288
D. Switch with priority 20480
Answer D.
3. Which of the following options should the switch use to find the VLAN that is the root bridge? (Please select two.)
A. Display Spanningtree3.
B. Show all spanning trees
C. Show spanning tree port root VLAN
D. View an overview of spanning tree
Answer A,D
4. Suppose you want to run the new 802.1w on the switch. Which of the following options is enabled for this protocol?
A. Switch (config) #spanningtree mode Rapid pvst
B. Switch a spanning tree mode rapid pvst
C. Switch (config) #spanningtree mode 802.1w
D. Switch panning tree mode 802.1w
Answer A
5. Which of the following is a hierarchical protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. RIP 5.
D. CDP
Ans. B
6. Which statement describes a converged spanning tree network?
A. All switch and bridge ports are in forwarding.
B. All switch and bridge ports are assigned as root or designated ports.
C. All switch and bridge ports are in either forwarding or blocking state.
D. All switch and bridge ports are blocking or looping through
Answer C
7. Which of the following modes will enable LACPE therChannel? (Please select two.)
A. On
B. Prevention
C. Passive
D. Auto
E. Active
F. Hope
Answers C, E
8. Which of the following statements about RSTP is correct? (Please select three.)
A. RSTP speeds up spanning tree recalculation when the Layer 2 network topology changes.
B. RSTP is an IEEE standard that redefines STP port roles, states, and BPDUs.
C. RSTP is very proactive and very fast, which makes the 802.1 delay timer completely annoying.
D. RSTP (802.1w) replaces 802.1d, but remains proprietary.
E. All 802.1d terms and most parameters have changed.
F. 802.1w can fall back to 802.1d and use a traditional switch for each port.
Answers A, B, F.
9. What does BPDU Guard do?
A. Make sure the port is receiving BPDUs from the correct upstream switch.
B. Make sure that the port does not receive BPDUs from the upstream switch, but only from the root.
C. When a BPDU is received on a guard port, PortFast is used to close the port.
D. Shut down the port if a BPDU is detected on this port.
Answer D.
10. How many bits does BPDUPA have in the sysidext field?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Ans. C
11. There are four connections between two switches running RSTP PVST + and I want to know how to achieve higher bandwidth without sacrificing the restoring force provided by RSTP. What can be configured between these two hexes to achieve higher bandwidth than the standard configuration already provides?
A. set of PortFast and BPDU guards that provide faster convergence.
B. Use RSTPPVST to configure uneven cost load balancing.
C. Place all four links in the same EtherChannel bundle.
D. Configure PPP and use multilink.
reply C.
12. Under what circumstances can multiple copies of the same unicast frame be sent over a switched LAN?
A. After a broken link is reestablished during periods of heavy traffic
B. If the upper layer protocol requires high reliability
C. With an improperly implemented redundant topology.
D.
Answer D.
13. Configure LACP. Which one do you need to make sure that all the switch interfaces you use are configured exactly the same? (Please select three.)
A. Virtual MAC address
B. Port speed
C. Duplex
D. PortFast enables EVLAN information
Answers B, C, E.
14th Which of the following modes enables PARPEtherChannel? (Please select two.)
A. On
B. Prevention
C. Passive
D. Auto
E. Active
F. Hope
Answers D, F
16. Which of the following options is available to switch to ErherChannel port number 1 on the LACP interface? （WählenSiezweiaus。）
A. Switch（config）interface portchannel 1
B. Switch（config）achannelgroup 1 mode active
C. Switchinterface portchannel 1
D. Switch（config1f）#channelgroup 1 mode active mode active
Ans. A, D
17. Which of the two commands (choose two) guarantees that the switch is the root bridge for VLAN1na?
A. Spanning tree vlan3θ Priority e
B. Spanning tree vlan3θ priority 16384
C. Spanning tree vlan3θ Route guarantee
D. Tension tree VLAN 3θ route primary
Answer A,D
18. Why is Cisco using its own extension, PVST +, in STP and RSTP?
A. Bridge Bridge placement allows for faster convergence and optimal path determination.
B. Placing a non-root bridge will result in faster convergence and will determine the best path.
C. PVST + can be used to discard non-IP frames faster.
D. PVST + is actually an IEEE standard called 802.1w.
Answer A
19 Which state is there in 802.ld? (Please select all that apply.)
A. Block
B. Discard
C. Listen
D. Learn
E. Pass
F. Alternative
Ans. A, C, D, E
20. Which of the following roles does STP have? (Please select all that apply.)
A. Block
B. Discard
C. Route
D. Not specified
E. Forwarding
F. Specified
Answers A, C, D, E, F
Chapter 16. Network Device Management and Security
Computer Network and Security MCQs | Network Security mcqs with answers | computer network security mcqs with answers pdf | network security mcq with answers pdf
1 How can I effectively limit the read-only functionality of the requesting SNMP management station based on the IP address?
A. Place the ACL on the logical control plane.
B. Place the ACL on the circuit when you configure the RO community string.
C. Place the ACL on the VTY line.
D. Place ACLs on all router interfaces.
Ans. B.
2. What is the default priority setting for HSRP routers?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 125
Answer C
3. Which of the following commands will enable AAA on your router?
A. Activate aaa
B. Activate aaa
C. New model aaa
D.aaa new model
Answer D.
4. Which of the following measures will mitigate access level threats? (Please select two.)
A. Port security
B. Access list
C. Dynamic ARP inspection
D. AAA
Answers A, C
5. Which of the following instructions about DHCP snooping is incorrect?
A. DHCP snooping examines DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and excludes invalid messages.
B. DHCP snooping creates and maintains a DHCP snooping binding database. This database contains information about untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses.
C. The DHCP snooping rate limits DHCP traffic from trusted and untrusted sources.
D. DHCP snooping is a Layer 2 security feature that acts like a firewall between hosts.
Answer D.
6. Which of the following statements about TACACS + is correct? (Please select two.)
A. TACACS. Cisco’s unique security mechanism.
B. TACACS + uses UDP.
C. TACACS + is a combination of authentication and authorization services. When users like the NinKie process are authenticated, they are also authorized.
D. TACACS + provides multi-protocol support.
Answer A, D
7. Which of the following statements about RADIUS is incorrect?
A. RADIUS is an open standard protocol.
B. RADIUS separates AAA services.
C. RADIUS uses UDP.
D. RADIUS encrypts the AccessRequestPacker password only from the client to the server. The rest of the package is unencrypted.
Ans. B
8. The switch consists of the command snmp server community C1sco RO runnine 8.SNMPv2c. The NMS is trying to communicate with this router via SNMP, what can the NMS do? (Please select two.)
A. The NMS can only graphically display the trained results.
B. NMS can graph the results of the retrieved host names.
C. The NMS can only change the host name of the router. router.
D. NMS can use GETBULK to return many results.
Answer A,D
9. What is correct for each type? From FHRP?
A. FHRP provides routing information to the host.
B.FHRP is a routing protocol.
C. FHRP provides standard gateway redundancy.
D.FHRP is standard base only.
Ans. C
10. Which of the following is the HSRP country? (Please select two.)
A. INIT
B. Active
C.
D. Established an idol
Answers A and B
11. Which command configures the interface to activate HSRP with the virtual router IP address 1θ.1.1.1θ?
A. Standby 1ip1θ.1.1.1θiphsrp1 Standby 1θ.1.1.1θ
B. C.hsrp1ip1θ.1.1.1θ
D. Standby 1hsrp ip 10.1.1.10
Ans. A
12. Which command displays the status of all HSRP groups on the Cisco router or Layer 3 witch?
A. Display iphsrp.
B. Display hsrp.
C. Shows standby hsrp.
D. Show Standby Show
E.HSR Group
Answer D.
13. The two routers are part of the HSRP standby group and the HSRP group in the uterus is not prioritized. Which of the following explanations is correct?
A. Both routers are active.
B. Both routers are in standby mode.
C. Both routers are in the list.
D. One router is active and the other is in standby.
Answer D.
14. Which of the following statements about the HSRP version 1 Hello package is correct?
A. HSRP Hello packets are sent to the multicast address 224.0.0.0.S.
B. HSRP RP Hello packets are sent to multicast address 224.0.0.2 using TCP port 1985.
C. HSRP Hello packets are sent to multicast address 224.0.0.2 using UDP port 1985.
D. HSRP Hello packets are sent to the multicast address 224.0.0.10 using UDP port 1986.
Answer C
15. Routers HSRP1 and HSRP2 are in HSRP group 1. HSRPI is an active router with a priority of 120 and HSRP2 is the default priority. After rebooting HSRP1, HSRP2 becomes the active router. Which of the following is correct when HSRP1 is redisplayed? (Please select two.)
A. HSRP1 becomes the active router.
B. HSRP2 remains the active router.
C. If HSRPI is also configured for preemption, HSRPI will be the active router.
D. Both routers will be in voice mode.
Answers B, C
16. What is the HSRP version 27A multicast address and port number?
A. 224.0.0.2, UDP port 1985
B. 224.0.0.2, TCP port 1985
C. 224.0.0.102, UDP port 1985
D. 224.0.0.102, TCP port 1985
Answer C
17. What is the right thing about SNMP? (Please select two.)
A. SNMPV2C is more secure than SNMPV1.
B. SNMPV3 uses TCP and introduced the GETBULK operation.
C. SNMPv2c introduced the INFORMATION process.
D. SNMPV3 offers the highest security of the three versions.
Answer C, D
18. You need to configure RADIUS so that your network device has external authentication, but you also need to make sure that you can fall back to local authentication. Which command do you use?
A. aaa Authentication Login Local Group My RadiusGroup
B. aaa Authentication Login Group MyRadiusGroup Fallback-Local
C. aaa Authentication Login Standard Group MyRadiusGroup External Local
D. aaa authentication login default group MyRadiusGroup local
Answer D.
19. What is right about DA?
A. You must use tcp, bootl, and dhcp snooping to work. 8
B. DHCP snooping is required to configure the MACtoIP binding for DAI verification.
C. DAI needs to establish a MACtoIP binding that protects against man-in-the-middle attacks.
D. DAI tracks the ICMP to MAC binding from DHCP.
Answer B
20. The IEEE 802.1x standard allows you to implement identity-based networks on wired and wireless hosts using eient / server access control. It has three roles. Which of the following are these three roles?
A. Customer
B. Transfer
C. Security Access Control
D. Authenticator
E. Authentication Server
Answers A, D, E
chapter 17. Enhanced IGRP
CCNA MCQs | ccna mcq questions and answers | Enhanced IGRP MCQs
1. There are three possible routes for the router to reach the destination network. The first route from OSPF with a metric of 782. The second route is from RIPV2 with metric 4. Chards are from EIGRP with a composite metric of 20514560. Which route does the router install in the routing table?
A. RIPV2
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. All three
Ans B.
2. Which EIGRP information is stored in RAM and managed using the hello and update packages? (Please select two.)
A. Neighbor table
B. STP table
C. Topology table
D.DUAL table
Answers A, C
3. 10.10.30.0 What is the reported distance to the downstream neighbor routers on the network? Do Neighbors Add the Cost to Find a True FD? P1θ.1θ.3θ.θ. / 24, 1 successor, FD is 172.16.1θ..2 (2297856/128256), 2297856 via Serial θ / θA.
A. Jumps
B.2297856
C. 128256
D. EIGRP does not use the reported distance.
Ans. B.
4. Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?
A. Routing table only
B. Adjacent table C only.
C. Topology table only
D. Routing table and adjacency table
E. In the routing table and topology table
F. In the topology table and neighbor table
Answer E.
5. Which command displays all EIGRP successor routes that the router may be aware of?
A. View IP Routes
B. View IPEigrp Overview
C. View IPEigrp Topology
D. ip show eigrp Neighborhoods
E. ip show eigrp neighbor details
Answer C
6. Which of the following commands is used when routing in EIGRP or EIGRP6? (Please select three).
A. ネットワーク1θ.θ.θ.θ
B. eigrprouterid
C. Disperse
D. routereigrp
E. Maximum path
Answers B, C, E.
7. Serial0 / 0 disappears. How does EIGRP send packets over the 10.1.1.0 network? Corprshow ip eigrp topology (cut version)P1θ.1.1.θ / 24, 2 successor, FD is 2681842over1θ.1.2.2 (2681842/2169856), serial / eover1θ.1.3.1 (2973467/2579243), serial / 2over1θ.1.3. 3 (2681842/2169856), Series / 1
A. EIGRP puts the 10.1.1.0 network into active mode.
B. EIGRP drops all packets destined for 10.1.1.0.
C.EIGRP continues to send packets from s0 / 1.
D. EIGRP uses s0 / 2 as a successor and maintains routing in 10.1.1.0.
Answer C
8. Which command do you use to enable EIIGRP V6 on the interface?
A. Eigrp as Router-
B. IP router eigrpas
C. Router eigrpv6 as
D. ipv6 eigrp as
Answer D.
9. 172.16.16.6, θθ: θθ: 2θ, Command entered to set these two paths in the network 10.10.50.0 of the routing table 1θ.16.5θ.θ [9θ / 2297856] via Serialθ / 1. .. To have[9θ / 6893568] Approximately 172.16.1θ.2 ,: θθ: 2θ, Sertale / e
A. Maximum path 2
B. Distributed 2
C. Distributed 3
D. Maximum hop 2
Answer C
10. You will get a route to network 10.10.10.0. How does EIGRP react in the local routing table? (Please select two.)
A. Sends a Gift Reverse with a maximum of 16 hops.
B. Jé has successors that can be copied and pasted into the routing table.
C. If no possible successor is found, a request for the path to network 10.10.10.0 will be sent to all neighbors.
D. EIGRP fails to connect to network 10.10.10.0 and sends all interfaces for which a viable successor is sought.
Answers B, C
11. You need the IP address of the device with which the router has established adjacencies. In addition, you need to check the retransmission interval and the number of queues for neighboring routers. Which command will display the required information?
A. Display ip eigrp Neighborhood.
B. Displays the ipeigrp topology.
C. ip show eigrp interfaces
D. ip show eigrp neighbors
Answer D.
12. For some reason, you cannot create a neighborhood relationship between two routers on a shared Ethernet connection. Looking at the output shown here, what is causing the problem? (Please select two.)
RouterA ## View IP logThe routing protocol is “eigrp20” Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces 1 is not configured Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not configuredStandard network marked in outbound update Standard network accepted in inbound update EIGRP metric weighting Ki1, K2 = θ, K31, K4 = θ, K5θ
RouterB ## View IP log The routing protocol is “eigrp220”. There is no defined filter list for outbound updates on all interfaces. There is no defined filter list for incoming updates on all interfaces. Standard networks marked in outbound updates Standard networks accepted in inbound updates EIGRP metric weighting Ki = 1, K2 = 1, K31, K4 = θ, KS = θ
A. EIGRP is running on RouterA and OSPF is running on Router
B. The ACL is specified in the routing protocol.
D. Standard networks for incoming updates are not accepted. E.K values do not match.
C. AS numbers do not match.
F. There is a passive set of interfaces.
Answers C, E
13. Which is correct regarding EIGRP successor routes? (Please select two.)
Follow-up routes are used by EIGRP to route traffic to their destinations.
B. Follower routes are stored in the topology table and are used in the event of a primary route failure.
C. Subsequent routes are marked as “active” in the routing table.
D. Subsequent routes can be supported by viable follower routes.
E. Subsequent routes are stored in the neighbor table after the discovery process.
Answer A, D
14. The remote RouterB router has a directly connected network of 10.255.255.64/27. Which of the following EIGRP network directives can be used to advertise this directly connected network in an EIGRP process? (Please select two.)
A. Netzwerk1θ.255.255.64
B。Netzwerk1θ.255.255.64θ.θ.θ.31
C。Netzwerk1θ.255.255.64θ.θ.θ.θ
D。Netzwerk10.255.255.64 θ.θ.θ.15
Ans A , B
16。 How many paths does EIGPV6 load balance by default?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 4
D. none
Answer C
20. What should I look for when troubleshooting my neighborhood? (Please select four.)
A. Check the AS number.
B. Make sure the correct interface is enabled for EIGRP.
C. Make sure there are no deviant K values.
D. Check the passive interface settings.
E. Make sure the remote router is not connected to the internet.
F. If authentication is configured, make sure that all routers use different passwords.
Ans. A,B,C,D
18 Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
OSPF Quiz | The Computation of the Shortest Path in OSPF is usually done by
1. There are three possible routes for the router to reach the destination network. The first route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The second route is from RIPV2 with metric 4. The third route is from EIGRP with a composite metric of 20514560. Which route does the router install in the routing table?
A. RIPV2
B. EIGRP
C. OSPFD.
D. All three
Ans: B
3. Which of the following describes the process ID used to run OSPF on the router? (Please select two.)
A. It is locally important.
B. It is globally important.
C. It is required to identify a unique instance of the OSPF database.
D. This is an optional parameter and is required only if the router is running multiple OSPF processes.
E When exchanging routing information, all routes in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID.
Ans: A, C
4. For two OSPF routers to be neighbors, all of the following must match:
A. Realm IDB.
B. Router IDC.
C. Stub realm flag
D. Authentication password when using
Ans: B
8. What is the administrative distance from OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 120
D. 110
Ans: D
9. In OSPF, to which IP address is hello sent?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.9
C. 224.0.0.10
D. 224.0.0.1
Ans: A
11. What type of OSPF router is the update addressed to 224.0.0.6 targeted for?
A. DR
B. ASBR
C. ABRD.
D. All OSPF routers
Ans: A
14. Enter the command to deactivate OSPF on the Fa0 / 1 interface during the routing process. Just write the command, not the command prompt. reply Passive interface fastEthernet0 / 1 17. What are the three reasons for creating OSPF in a hierarchical design? (Please choose three)
A. To reduce routing overhead
B. To speed up convergence
C. To limit network instability to individual areas of the network
D. To simplify the configuration of OSPF
Ans: A,B,C
19. (n) …… is an OSPF data packet containing link state and routing information shared by the OSPF router.
A. LSA
B. TSA
C. Hello
D.SPF
Ans: A
20. If the routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value and there is no loopback interface, what value does the router use for the OSPF router ID?
A. Minimum IP address of the physical interface
B. Maximum IP address of the physical interface
C. Minimum IP address of any logical interface
D. Maximum IP address of any logical interface
Ans: B
Chapter 19. Multi-Area OSPF
Multi-Area OSPF Quiz | The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is usually done by
1. Which of the following is a single-area OSPF network scalability issue? (Please select all that apply.)
A. Routing table size
B. OSPF database size
C. Maximum hop count limit
D.OSPF database recalculation
Ans: A,B,D
2. Which of the following statements describes a router that connects to an external routing process (EIGRP)?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. Typ 2 L SA
D. Stub router
Ans: B
3. Which of the following (choose three) must match for neighbors to occur between routers?
A. Process ID
B. Hello timer and dead timer
C. Link cost
D. Area
E. IP address / subnet mask
Ans: B,D,E
4. After adding neighbors to the table and exchanging hello information, in what OSPF state the two routers forming the neighbor hood are displayed, like the output of show ip osof Neighbor
A. TRY
B. INIT 4.
C. 2WAY
D. EXSTART
E.FULL。
Ans: C
5. You need to set the preferred link that OSPF uses to relay information to the remote network. Which command can I use to set an interface link in preference to another command?
A. ipospf 10
B if possible. IP-OSPF priority 10
C .espf Bandwidth
D.ipospf Cost
Ans: D
6. When does the status FULL / DR appear in the router’s neighbor table?
A. After receiving the first hello packet from a neighbor
B. If all information is synchronized between neighboring neighbors If the
C router’s Neghbor table is full of information and Neghibor discards it After
D.EXSTART state
Ans: B
7. What is / correct about OSPFV3? (Select all that apply).
A. You need to add a network statement without an OSPE process.
B. There are no network statements in the OSPFV3 configuration.
E. If IPv4 is not configured on your router, you will need to configure it.
D. If you are configuring IPV4 on your router, you do not need to enter your RID.
Ans: B,D,E
8. When a router goes through the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order do it go through the individual states?
A. EXSTART status> LOADING status EXCHANGE status> FULL status
B. Information a. After the EXSTART state, C.OSPFV3 uses a 128-bit RIDRID. .. Does OSPEV3 use LSAS like OSPFV2 in all situations?
B. EXSTART status> EXCHANGE status> LOADING status> FULL
C. EXSTART status> FULL status> LOADING status> EXCHANGE status
D. LOADING status> EXCHANGE status> FULL status> EXSTART Stare
Ans: B
9. Which type of LSA is generated by the DR and is called Network Link Advertisement (NL A)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
Ans: B
10. Is the type of LSA generated by ABRS called a Summary Link Advertisement (SLA)?
A. Typ 1
B. Typ 2
C. Typ 3
D. Typ4
E. Type 5
Ans: C
11. Which command displays all the LSASs that the router knows about?
A. Display ip ospf
B. ip ospf showneighbor
C. ip display ospf interface
D. ip display ospf database
Ans: D
14. Which of the following situations can prevent two routers from becoming neighbors (select all that apply):
A. These are made up of different areas.
B. Each router considers a directly connected connection to be a different cost.
C. Two different process IDs are configured.
D. ACLs are configured in the routing protocol.
E. There is a mismatch between the IP address and the mask.
F. Passive interface is configured.
G. Both are configured with the same RID.
Ans: A,D,E,F,G
15. Which of the following IOS commands will display the status of the neighborhood to which the router is directly connected?
A. Debugging ospf events
B. IP-Ospf View border routers
C.IP-Ospf Show neighbors
D.IP-Ospf View database
Ans: c
16. Which command displays the DR and DBR addresses of the areas that are directly connected through the interface?
A. Display interface sθ / θ / θ
B. Display interface faθ / θ
C. ipdisplayospfinterfaces θ / θ / θ
D. show ip ospf interface fa θ / θ and below can cause problems
Ans: D
18. Which of the following explanations is correct? (Please select all that apply).
A. OSPF and OSPFV3 reference bandwidth is 1.
B. The reference bandwidth for OSPF and OSPFV3 is 100.
C. Use the command auto case reference bandwidth number to change the reference bandwidth from the global settings.
D. Use the auto cost reference bandwidth number command to change the reference bandwidth in the OSPF router process.
E. If changed from the default, only one router needs to set the reference bandwidth.
F. All routers in a single area need to set the reference bandwidth when changed from the default settings.
G. All routers in AS must set the reference bandwidth when changed from the default settings
Ans: B,D,G
19. Which of the two statements about the OSPF router ID is correct? Please select two.
A. Identifies the source of Type 1 LSA.
B. This should be the same for all routers in the OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address of the router is the OSPF router ID.
D. The router automatically selects the loopback IP address as the OSPF router ID.
E. Created using the MAC address of the loopback interface.
Answer A, D
20. What are the two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Please select two.)
A. For single area routers, the load on the CPU is low.
B. Reduce the types of LSAS generated.
C. No virtual connection is required.
D. Extends the response time of LSA.
E. Reduce the number of OSPF neighbors required.
Ans: B,C
Chapter 20. Troubleshooting IP, IPv6, and VLANs
Troubleshooting IP, IPv6, and VLANs Quiz
1. You need to check the router’s IPv6 ARP cache to make sure the entry status is REACH. What does REACH mean?
A. The router logs in to get the address
B. The entry is incomplete.
C. The entry has reached the end of its life and is deleted from the table.
D. Neighbors receive a positive acknowledgment and the path to the neighbor is working properly.
Ans: D
2. What are the most common causes of interface errors?
A. Difference in speed
B. Duplex mismatch
C. Buffer overflow
D. Collision between dedicated switch port and NIC
Ans: B
3. Which command checks the DTP status of the switch interface?
A. shdtp status
B. shdtp status interface interface
C.sh interface interface dtp
D. shdtp interface interface
Ans: D
4. Which mode does not allow DTP frames generated by the switch port?
A. Do not negotiate
B. Tribe
C.
D. Access to Auto
Ans: A
6. Which of the following conditions indicates that the interfaces did not communicate adjacent to each other within a reachable time frame?
D. Deleted
A. Reach
B. Stall
C. Timeout
Ans: B
9. Which two commands are displayed if there is a native VLAN mismatch?
A. Shows the native VLAN of the interface.
B. Shows the interface trunk.
C. Displays the interface switch port.
D. Show switch port interface
Ans: B,C
10. Connect two new Cisco 3560 switches and expect them to use DTP to create the trunk. However, if you look at the statistics, you can see that they are access ports and are not negotiated. Why didn’t DTP work on these Cisco switches?
A. The ports on both sides of the link are set to automatic trunk.
B. The ports on both sides of the link are turned on.
C. The ports on both sides of the link are dynamically configured.
D. The ports on both sides of the link are set to the desired values
Ans: A
Chapter 21. Wide Area Networks
Wide Area Network Example | Wide Area Networks Quiz
1. Which command indicates the CHAP authentication process that occurs between two routers on your network?
A. Show Chap authentication
B. Show serial interface
C. Debug ppp authentication
D. Chap Debug authentication
Ans: C
2. Which of the following statements applies to the following command? (Please select two.)
R1 (configrouter) # Neighbor 1θ.1θ.2θθ.1 Remoteas62θθ
A. Local router R1 uses AS6200.
B. The remote router uses AS6200.
C. The local interface for R1 is 10.10.20.1.
D. The neighbor IP address is 10.10.20.1.
E. The neighbor’s loopback interface is 10.10.20.1.
Ans: B,D
3. Which transport layer protocol and which port number does BGP use?
A. UDP / 123 3.
B. TCP / 123
C. UDP / 179
D. TCP / 179
E. UDP / 169
F. TCP / 169
Ans: D
4. Which command can be used to determine the hold time for two BGP peers?
A. ip bgp show
B. ip bgp show summary
C. ip bgp show all
D. ip bgp
Ans: D
6. Which of the following is the feature of GRE? (Connect two.)
A. GRE encapsulation uses the protocol type field in the GRE header to support OSI Layer 3 protocol encapsulation.
B. GRE itself is stateful. A flow control mechanism is included by default.
C. GRE contains strong security mechanisms to protect the payload.
D. The GRE header, along with the tunneling IP header, creates an additional overhead of at least 24 bytes for the tunneled packet.
Ans: A, D
7. GRE tunnel flutters with the following error message: 07:11:49:% LINEPROTO5UPDOWN: Interface tunnel line protocol, status changed to up 07:11:55:% TUN5RECURDOWN: Tunnel θ has been temporarily deactivated due to recursive routing 07:11:59: LINEPROTO5UPDOWN: Line protocol and interface tunnel, status changed downward 07:12:59: LINEPROTO5UPDOWN: What causes the tunnel to flutter?
A. IP routing is not activated on the tunnel interface.
B. There is an MTU problem with the tunnel interface.
C. The router attempts to route itself to the destination address of the tunnel through the runner interface.
D. Access lists block traffic on tunnel interfaces.
Ans: C
8. Which of the following commands will tell me if GRE tunnel 0 is up / up?
A. Show IP Interface Brief
B. Show Interface Tunnel θ
C. Show IP Interface Tunnel θ
D. Show Interface Tunnel
Ans: D
9. Which of the following PPP Oren Recalion protocols will the device at the ike end of the link authenticate with an encrypted password?
A. MD5
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. DES
Ans: C
10. Which of the following will encapsulate the PPP frame into an Ethernet frame and use common features such as authentication, encryption, and compression?
A. PPP
B. PPPOA
C. PPPOE
D. Token ring
Ans: C
12. I used the GRE-IP command to configure a serial interface on an enterprise router with a ninte to point connection to a remote office. Which command displays the IP address of the interface and the source and destination addresses of the tunnel?
A. show int serial / e
B. show ipint Easily
C. show interface tunnel θ
D. Viewing Tunnel IP Status
E. IP Interface Tunnel Debugging
Ans: C
13. Which of the following statements about WAN technology is correct? (Please select three.)
A. You must use PPP on the link that connects the two routers on the point-to-point dedicated line.
B. You can use T1 to connect your customer site to your ISP. You can use
C. T1 to establish a Frame Relay connection to your ISP.
D. With EOMPLS, you can use Ethernet as a WAN service.
E. If you are using an Ethernet WAN, you need to configure DLCI.
Ans: B,C,D
14. I want to allow remote users to send protected packets to corporate sites, but I don’t want to install software on remote client machines. What is the best aul you can implement?
A. GRE tunnel
B. Web VPN
C. VPND everywhere. IPsec
Ans: B
16. Which of the following is the benefit of using a VPN on your network? (Please select three).
A. Security
B. High bandwidth private connection
C. Cost savings
D. Incompatibility with broadband technology
E. Scalability Answer AS
Ans: A,C,E
17. Which of the two technologies is an example of Layer-2-MPLS-VEN-Nchaelogien (select two)
A. VPLS
B. DMVPM
C. GETVPN
D. VPWS
Ans: A, D
18. The following is a set of cross-industry protocols and algorithms that enable secure data transmission over IPhed Pe network running at layer 3 (network layer) of the OS1 word.
A. HDLC
B. Cable
C.VPN
D. IPsec
E. XDSL
Ans: D
19. Which of the following statements describes creating a private network over the Internet? Do you want to enable data protection and tunnel non-TCPIP protocols?
A. HDLC
B. Kabel
C. VPN
D. IPsec
E. XDSL
Answer C
20. Which of the two VPNs are examples of VPNs managed by service providers? (Choose two).
A. Remote access VPN
B. Layer 2 MPLS VPN
C. Layer 3 MPLS VPN
D. DMVPN
Ans: B,C
Chapter 22. Evolution of Intelligent Network
Intelligent Network MCQs | Evolution of Intelligent Network
1. Which of the following is the congestion avoidance mechanism?
A. LMI
B. WRED
C. QPM
D. Qo5
Ans: B
2. Which of the following is the correct description for Stack Wise? (Please select two.)
A. StackWise interconnect cables are used to connect switches to create a closed-loop bidirectional path.
B. StackWise interconnect cables are used to connect one-way closed loop paths.
C. StackWise allows you to combine up to nine individual switches into one logical switching unit.
D. Stack Wise can be connected to form multiple logical switching units and connect up to nine individual switches managed by a single IP address.
Ans: A,C
3. Which of the following is the best definition of cloud computing ?
A. UCS Data Center
B. Computation Model Using All Data from Service Providers
C. On-Demand Computation Model
D. Computation Model Using All Data from Local Data Centers
Ans: C
4. What are the three features of voice traffic properties and one-way requirements? (Please select three.)
A. There is a lot of traffic.
B. Smooth voice traffic.
C. The wait time should be less than 400 ms.
D. The delay should be less than 1s0ms.
E. Bandwidth is approximately 30-128kbps.
F. The bandwidth is about 0.5-20Mbps.
Ans: B,D,E
5. At what SDN architecture level is Cisco APICEM?
A. Data
B. Control
C. Presentation
D. Application
Ans: B
6. Which cloud service model is responsible for managing operating systems, software, platforms, and applications?
A. Lars
B. Saas
C. Paas
D. APICEM
Ans: A
7. Which of the following is the correct description of Qo5’s trust limits or domains?
A. Trust limits are always routers.
B. PCs, printers and tablets are usually part of a trusted domain.
C. IP phones are a shared trust limit.
D. Routing works only if the service provider and corporate network are in a single trust domain.
Ans: C
8. Which is the correct description for IWAN?
A. IWAN enables transport-independent connections.
B. IWAN only allows static routing.
C. IWAN does not provide application visibility because only encrypted traffic is forwarded.
D. IWAN requires special cryptographic equipment to provide an acceptable level of security.
Ans: A
9. What are the advanced classification tools you can use to classify your data applications?
A.NBAR
B. MPLS
C. APICEM
D. ToS
Ans: A
10. How many bits does the DSCP field in the IP header contain?
A.3 bit
B.4 bit
C.6 bit
D.8 bit
Ans: C
11. At what two levels is the SDN Southbound interface used?
A. Control
B. Data
C. Routing
D. Application
Ans: A, B
12. Which option is Layer 2 Qos Marking
A. EXP
B. Qos Group
C. DSCP
D. Cos
Answer: D
13. I am planning to use SDN in my network. What do you mean?
A. You don’t have to work anymore, but you can make more money.
B. All applications need to be updated.
C. All Cisco switches need to be removed.
D. More time to respond more quickly when receiving a new business request
Ans: D
14. Which QoS mechanism drops traffic if the session uses more than the allocated bandwidth?
A. Congestion management
B. Design
C. Police work
D. Marking
Ans: C
15. Which of the three layers belong to the SDN architecture? (Please select three.)
A. Network
B. Datalink
C. Control
D. Data
E. Transport
F. Application
Ans: C,D,F
16. Which of the following statements about APICEM ACL analysis is incorrect?
A. Rapid configuration comparison
B. Inspegon, queries, and analysis of network access control guidelines
C. Ability to provide layer 4 to layer 7 deep packet inspection
D. Trace application-specific paths between end devices to ACLS, etc. Ability to quickly identify problem areas With ACLS between devices to visualize and identify differences
Ans: C
17. Which of the following two is not part of APICEM?
A. The Southbound API is used for communication between the controller and network devices.
B. The Northbound API is used for communication between the controller and network devices.
C. OnePK is unique to Cisco.
D. The control plane is responsible for forwarding frames or packets
Ans: B,D
18. What is the right thing to do when stacking switches? (Please select two.)
A. The stack is managed as multiple objects and has a single management IP address.
B. The stack is managed as a single object and has a single management IP address
C. When you activate the main algorithm of the first switch, the main switch is selected.
D. The master switch is selected from one of the stack member switches
Ans: B,D
19. Which of the following services is provided by the operating system and network?
A. laas
B. Paas
C. Saas
D. Neither of the above
Ans: B
20. Which of the following services provides the required software, operating system, and network?
A. laas
B. PaaS
C. Saas
D. Neither of the above
Ans: C
21. Which of the following benefits cloud computing does not offer to cloud users?
A. On-demand self-service provisioning of resources
B. Centralized representation of resources
C. Local backup
D. Highly available and horizontally scaled application architecture
Ans: C
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