Multiple Choice Questions on Pollution and Its Control

Multiple Choice Questions on Pollution and Its Control
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Multiple choice Questions of Zoology Topic Multiple Choice Questions on Pollution and Its Control with Answers ( Pollution and Its Control Quiz ) for NEET, GATE, AIAPGET, NEET MDS, NEET PG, DNB PDCET, AIIMS SS, PGIMER (Other), AIIMS PG and many more competitive examinations.

Multiple Choice Questions on Pollution and Its Control | Quiz on Water Pollution | Air Pollution Quiz

1. What aspect of London’s 1952 smog episode prompted industrialised countries to regulate industrial air emissions?

(a) Smog is only produced by the burning of low-carbon peat

(b) It was produced by the reaction of air pollutants to sunlight

(c) It contributed to the death of thousands of people

(d) it depleted ozone

Ans. c

2. The earth’s ozone layer that controls the amount of solar radiation striking the planet is found in which of the following?

(a) Stratosphere 

(b) Tropopause

(c) Inversion layer

(d) Thermosphere

Ans. a

3. The pattern of atmospheric conditions found across a relatively large geographic region over a long period of time is called which of the following?

(a) Climate 

(b) Hadley oells

(c) Seasonal cycles

(d) Ferrel cells

Ans. a

4. Under normal atmospheric conditions, why do vertical mixing and dispersion of air pollutants occur?

(a) Wam air at the surface rises

(b) In an inversion, cool air lies below warm air

(c) Warm air is denser than cool air

(d) In an inversion, warm air lies above cool air

Ans. a

5. Which of the following correctly describes a secondary air pollutant?

(a) A pollutant that is less hazardous than a primary pollutant

(b) A pollutant ermitted into the troposphere in a form that is directly harmful

(c) A pollutant that develops through chemical reactions with other pollutants or chemicals nomally present in the atmosphere

(d) The formation of these are not as strictly controlled as primary air pollutants

Ans. c

6. Pollutants that produce acid rain in rural areas such as Hubbard Brook were found to come primarily from which of the following?

(a) Carbon dioxide from burning fossil fuels

(b) Pollutants from automobile exhaust

(c) Pollutants transported from urban areas

(d) The geology of the area that produces acidic soils

Ans. c

7. What is the principle health concern of ozone depletion in the stratosphere?

(a) Cancer and other damage to the skin

(b) Milankovitch cycles

(c) Temperature inversions

(d) Hadley cell

Ans. a

8. Which of the following is not likely to happen as a result of the rising levels of CO, in our atmosphere?

(a) Increased incidence of skin cancer

(b) Rise in sea levels

(c) Change in climatic patterns

(d) Shifts in locations of deserts and fertile regions

Ans. a

9. DDT and chlordane are agricultural chemicals that were once used widely but have now been banned in the United States. They belong to aclass of compounds called

(a) chiorofluorocarbons

(b) chlorinated hydrocarbons

(c) fossil fuels

(d) acid precipitation

Ans. b

10. Acid rain causes

(a) destruction of forests 

(b) gradual kiling of lakes

(c) killing fish

(d) All of these

Ans. d

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11. CFCS are

(a) the cause of ozone depletion

(b) propellants in aerosol dispensers

(c) foaming agents in styrofoam

(d) All of the above

Ans. d

12. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) We presently lack the technology to prevent acid rain

(b) Every 1% drop in atmospheric ozone content is estimated to lead to a 6% increase in the incidence of skin cancer

(c) Topsoil, groundwater and biodiversity are non-replaceable resources

(d) The first stage in addressing an environmental problem is assessing the situation

Ans. a

13. Information that is based upon the beliefs, cultures and values of aboriginal peoples and their thousands of years of experience in their environment is called

(a) popular ecosystem knowledge

(b) traditional ecosystem knowledge

(c) traditional ecological knowledge

(d) popular ecological knowledge

Ans. c

14. Scientists use . .. to track changes in ecosystems by comparing the results of investigations done at different times

(a) ecological watches

(b) organism monitoring

(c) environmental system gathering

(d) ecosystem monitoring

Ans. d

15. . give scientists information about ecosystems before an event occur.

(a) A feeder watch

(b) A scattered population survey

(c) Baseline data

(d) Guideline samplings

Ans. c

16. A report that outlines how an activity will affect the environment is called

(a) a natural disturbance survey

(b) wetland monitoring

(c) a natural succession assessment

(d) an environmental impact assessment

Ans. d

17. Which of the following is not true about biodiversity?

(a) Maximum diversity occurs in tropic

(b) Introduction of exotic spocies may cause the loss of biodiversity

(c) Diversity of the habitats over the total lancscape or geographical area is called gamma diversity

(d) Hot spot concept developed by the Norman Mayers to designate priority areas for ex situ conservation of biodiversity

Ans. d

18. Which of the following character make a species susceptible to extinction?

(a) Large population size

(b) Feeding at high trophic level in food chain

(c) Wide range of distributions

(d) Small body size

Ans. b

19. A species facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called

(a) vulnerable 

(b) rare

(C) endangered

(d) link species

Ans. c

20. Which of the following statement is false?

I. Genetic diversity helps prevent a species from becoming extinct.

II. The phenomenon in which animals with favourable adaptation reproduces more rapidly is called differential reproduction.

III. Geographic isolation is a common mechanism contributing to speciation.

IV. Biologists estimate that 99% of all species that have ever existed are now extinct.

(a) I and II.

(b) I and IV

(c) Il and II

(d) None of these

Ans. d

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21. Which of the following best describes biodiversity?

(a) The kinds of species in a community

(b) The diversity of species in an area including their genes, populations and communities

(c) Populations of organisms that share certain characteristics and can freely breed

(d) The large numbers of species in tropical countries

Ans. b

22. Which of the statement given below gives the best description of a niche?

(a) Niche requirements include nesting sites and the location of food

(b) Habitat

(c) Niche specialists are better equipped to survive a major environmental catastrophe than generalists

(d) The occupation or activities of a species

Ans. c

23. Which of the following is a typical k-selected adaptation?

(a) Small body size

(b) Large numbers of offspring

(c) A very unstable population level

(d) Parental care of young

Ans. d

24. Areas seta side to protect examples of the different habitats in the province are called

(a) ecological reservos

(b) environmental preserves

(c) ecoprovinces

(d) biomes

Ans. a

25. Biologists might use . to mate animals in zoos then release the young into the wild.

(a) an adaptive breeding programme

(b) a symbiotic breeding programme

(c) a captive breeding programme

(d) an introduced species breeding programme

Ans. c

26. Pollution is.. .of environment

(a) contamination

(b) recombination

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Ans. a

27. Accumulation of non-biodegradable waste in environment is   called

(a) bioremedation 

(b) biosorption

(c) biodegradation

(d) biomagnification

Ans. d

28. Ozone depletion is occurring due to

(a) PCB

(b) CO

(c) PAN

(d) None of these

Ans. d

29. How have human activities increased the supply of fixed nitrogen available to the primary producers?

(a) Use of nitrogen fertilisers

(b) Increased cultivation of legumes

(c) Deliberate burning of fields

(d) All of the above   

Ans. d

30. Ozone is

(a) harmful in the upper atmosphere

(b) beneficial in the upper atmosphere

(c) beneficial in the lower atmosphere

(d) harmful in the upper atmosphere and beneficial in the lower atmosphere

Ans. b

31. Eutrophication in lakes is the direct result of

(a) a diminished supply of nitrates and phosphates

(b) industrial poisons

(c) nutrient enrichment such as nitrate and phosphate runofts from the land

(d) an increase in predators

Ans. c

33. Some possible properties of modern insecticides are listed below. When these insecticides are used, which property helps to keep environmental pollution at the lowest level?

(a) Accumulates in the bodies of predators

(b) Broken down by soil bacteria

(c) Easily washed into lakes and rivers

(d) Taken up by the plant roots

Ans. b

34. Which process does not result in the return of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?

(a) Combustion of fossil fuels

(b) Decomposition of humus

(c) Respiration by bacteria

(d) Photosynthesis by green plants

Ans. d

35. Non-biodegradable pollutants are created by

(a) nature 

(b) excessive use of resources

(c) humans

(d) natural disasters

Ans. c

36. CO is a pollutant because it

(a) inactivates nerves

(b) combines with oxygen

(c) combines with Hb

(d) inhibits growth 

Ans. c

37. Which type of pollution is caused by scooters?

(a) Air pollution 

(b) Soil pollution

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Water pollution

Ans. a

38. Air pollution effects are usually found on the 

(a) leaves

(b) flowers

(c) stems

(d) roots

Ans. a

39. The expanded form of DDT is

(a) Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane

(b) Dichloro Diethly Trichloroethane

(c) Dichloro Dipyrydyl Trichloroethane

(d) Dichloro Diphenyl Tetrachloroacetate

Ans. a

40. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is

(a) propane

(b) methane

(c) ethane

(d) butane

Ans. b

41. The gas which was released in Bhopal gas tragedy was

(a) ethylene

(b) methyl isocyanate

(c) mustard gas

(d) potassium isocyanate  

Ans. b

42. Pollutant causing leaf curling is 

(a) SO2

(b) CO

(c) H2S

(d) O2

Ans. a

43. Decomposition of domestic wastes under natural process is included in

(a) industrial pollution

(b) thermal pollution

(c) non-biodegradable pollution

(d) biodegradable pollution

Ans. d

44. The excess discharge of fertilisers into water bodies results in

(a) silt

(b) death of hydrophytes

(c) eutrophication

(d) growth of fish  

Ans. c

45. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) The Montreal protocol is associated with the control of emission of ozone depleting substances

(b) Methane and carbon dioxide are green house gases

(c) Dobson units are used to measure oxygen content

(d) Use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of hospital wastes

Ans. c

46. BOD stands for

(a) Biotic Oxygen Demand

(b) Biochemical Organic Decay

(c) Biological Organism Death

(d) Biochemical Oxygen Demand

Ans. d

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47. Huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, the BOD will

(a) increase 

(b) decrease

(c) unchanged

(d) slightly decrease

Ans. a

48. Which one of the following impurities is easiest to remove from wastewater?

(a) Bacteria 

(b) Colloids

(c) Dissolved solids

(d) Suspended solids

Ans. d

49. Itai-itai disease is caused by the poisoning of

(a) mercury 

(b) less than dirty water

(c) nervous system

(d) cadmium

Ans. d

50. BOD of drinking water is

(a) more than dirty water

(b) less than dirty water

(c) equal to dirty water 

(d) All of the above

Ans. b

51. The most outstanding danger at present for the survival of living beings on earth is

(a) glaciation 

(b) deforestation

(c) radiation hazards

(d) desertification

Ans. c

52. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiłes to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into

(a) carbon dioxide and water

(b) carbon mono oxide

(c) methane

(d) carbon dioxide and methane noging

Ans. a

53. Most dangerous radioactive pollutant is

(a) phosphorus 32

(b) strontium 90

(c) calcium 40

(d) sulphur 32

Ans. b

54. Algal bloom in a lake

(a) leads to O2 depletion

(b) increases CO2 level

(c) kills fishes and other organisms

(d) All of the above

Ans. d

55. Contamination of radioactive materials are dangerous because it causes

(a) biological magnification

(b) gene mutation

(c) photochemical smog

(d) ozone destruction

Ans. b

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