Multiple Choice Questions in Obstetrics and Gynaecology

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Obstetrics and Gynaecology Question Bank

1. Physical changes occure during puberty include-

(a) Breast development

(b) Growth of pubic and axillary hair

(c) Menstruation

(d) All

Ans. d

2. The first menstruation in a female is called as-

(a) Menarche

(b) Menopause

(c) Dysmenorrhea

(d) Amenorrhea

Ans. a

3. In a female, age of menarche is-

(a) 10 years

(b) 13 years

(c) 16 years

(d) 20 years

Ans. b

4. Which hormone plays an important role in significant proliferation of fat around the breast-

(a) Oestrogen

(b) Progesterone

(c) FSH

(d) Testosterone

Ans. a

5. Starting of menstrual cycle before the age of ten years, is termed as-

(a) Postcocious

(b) Precocious

(c) Amenorrhea

(d) Dysmenorrhea

Ans. b

6. Permanent cessation of menstruation is termed as-

(a) Menarche

(b) Dysmenorrhea

(c) Amenorrhea

(d) Menopause

Ans. d

7. Endocrinological changes occure during menopause include except-

(a) Fall in serum oestradiol level

(b) Fall in FSH level

(c) Increase in LH level

(d) Increase level of androgens

Ans. b

8. After menopause increased facial hair growth occures due to-

(a) Fall in FSH level

(b) Increase in LH level

(c) Decrease estrogen androgen ratio

(d) Decrease androgen level

Ans. c

9. After puberty obese patients have less chances of occurance of oste oporosis, because of

(a) Fall in FSH level

(b) Fall in LH level

(c) Conversion of more androgens into oestrogen

(d) Conversion of more oestrogen into androgen

Ans. c

10. In a female, changes occure after menopause include-

(a) Uterus becomes smaller

(b) The vagina become narrower

(c) Ovaries shrink in size

(d) All

Ans. d

11. In following which statement is false-

(a) At birth the uterine body and the cervix ratio is about 1:2

(b) When menarche occures the ratio between uterine body and the cervix becomes 1:1

(c) After menarche the ratio between uterine body and cervix becomes 2: 1

(d) After menopause the ratio remains 3:1

Ans. d

12. After menopause, a woman becomes more prone to development of osteoporosis because

(a) Fall in oestrogen level

(b) Increase in oestrogen level

(c) Fall in LH level

(d) Fall in FSH level

Ans. a

13. In a postmenopausal female, which is the principle hormone used in hormonal replacement therapy-

(a) Progesterone

(b) Oestrogen

(c) FSH

(d) LH

Ans. b

14. What do you mean by delayed menopause-

(a) When menopause does not occure beyond 45 years of age

(b) When menopause does not occure beyond 40 years of age

(c) When menopause does not occure beyond 50 years of age

(d) When menopause does not occure beyond 55 years of age

Ans. d

15. Causative organism of syphilis is-

(a) Chlamydia trachomatis

(b) Treponema pallidum

(c) Pox virus

(d) Haemophilus ducreyi

Ans. b

16. Causative organism of chancroid is-

(a) Chlamydia trachomatis

(b) Treponema pallidum

(c) Pox virus

(d) Haemophilus ducreyi

Ans. d

17. Infection of the fallopian tube is called is-

(a) Appendicitis

(b) Bartholinitis

(c) Salpingitis

(d) Endometritis

Ans. c

18. Painful menstruation is termed as-

(a) Menorrhage

(b) Dysmenorrhea

(c) Amenorrhea

(d) Menopause

Ans. b

19. In following which is not a cause of primary dysmenorrhea-

(a) Narrowing of the cervical canal

(b) Uterine hypoplasia

(c) Increased vasopressin release

(d) Decreased production of prostaglandins

Ans. d

20. Primary dysmenorrhea is mainly found in-

(a) Adolescent girl

(b) Pregnant women

(c) Females above 35 years

(d) Females above 45 years

Ans. a

21. Excessive amount of cyclic bleeding at normal intervals is termed as-

(a) Menorrhagia

(b) Epimenorrhoea

(c) Metrorrhagia

(d) Dysmenorrhoea

Ans. a

22. Cyclic bleeding in which duration of M.C. is reduced to 21 days or less, is termed as-

(a) Menorrhagia

(b) Epimenorrhoea

(c) Metrorrhagia

(d) Dysmenorrhoea

Ans. b

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23. Polymenorrhoea is also termed as-

(a) Menorrhagia

(b) Epimenorrhoea

(c) Metrorrhagia

(d) Dysmenorrhoea

Ans. b

24. Irregular, acyclic bleeding from the uterus is termed as-

(a) Menorrhagia

(b) Epimenorrhoea

(c) Metrorrhagia

(d) Dysmenorrhoea

Ans.  c

25. When the menstrual bleeding is very less and lasts for less than 2 days, is termed as-

(a) Oligomenorrhoea

(b) Amenorrhoea

(c) Hypomenorrhoea

(d) Dysmenorrhoea

Ans. c

26. Absence of menstrual cycle in a female during reporoductive period, is termed as-

(b) Epimenorrhoea

(a) Amenorrhoea

(c) Hypomenorrhoea

(d) Dysmenorrhoea

Ans. a

27. In following which is a common cause of menorrhagia-

(a) Fibroid uterus

(b) Adenomyosis

(c) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

(d) All

Ans. d

28. The condition in which bleeding is so irregular and excessive that it is difficult to identify menstruation, is known as-

(a) Menorrhagia

(b) Metrorrhagia

(c) Hypermenorrhoea

(d) Menometrorrhagia

Ans. d

Multiple Choice Questions in Obstetrics and Gynaecology

29. Which of the following tumor markers is used for the diagnosis of ovarian germ cell tumor-

(a) CA-125

(b) LDH 

(c) SCC

(d) TAG-72

Ans. b

30. What the full form of DUB-

(a) Direct Uterine Bleeding

(b) Direct Uterine Blood Vessels

(c) Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding

(d) Dysfunctional Uterine Blood Vessels

Ans. c

31. State of abnormal uterine bleeding in which  there is no clinically detectable pelvic pathology is present is known as-

(a) Menorrhagia

(b) Polymenorrhoea

(c) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

(d) Dysmenorrhoea

Ans. c

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32. In following which hormonal therapy is used for the management of DUB-

(a) Contraceptive pills

(b) Norethisterone acetate

(c) 17 alpha ethinyl testosterone

(d) All

Ans. d

33. Following are the indications of endometrial resection in a female with DUB except-

(a) Female who is over 35 anh

(b) Female who has completed her family

(c) Female who does not has any significant endometrial pathology such as cancer

(d) Female who is newly married

Ans. d

34. Treatment of premenstrual syndrome includes-

(a) Use of bromocriptine

(b) Use of antidepressants

(c) Pyridoxine

(d) All

Ans. d

35. Causative organism responsible for moniliasis, is-

(a) Candida albicans

(b) Tinea cruris

(c) Staphylococcus aureus

(d) Gonococci

Ans. a

36. In following which is the most common cause of vaginitis in the childbearing period-

(a) Trichomoniasis

(b) Moniliasis

(c) Atropic vagina

(d) Streptococci

Ans. a

37. Vaginal trichomoniasis is more harmful when-

(a) pH of vagina ranges between 1 – 2

(b) pH of vagina ranges between 3 – 4

(c) pH of vagina ranges between 6 – 7

(d) No effect of changes in pH

Ans. c

38. Inflammation of vagina in a women after menopause, is called as-

(a) Toxic shock syndrome

(b) Senile vaginitis

(c) Clamydial vaginitis

(d) Chronic vaginitis

Ans. b

39. Presence of yellowish or blood mixed vaginal discharges after menopause and vulval pruritis are the manifestations of-

(a) Menopause

(b) Toxic shock syndrome

(c) Atypical menorrhagia

(d) Senile vaginitis

Ans. d

40. What is the common cause of senile vaginitis-

(a) Increase FSH level

(b) Oestrogen deficiency

(c) Malnutrition

(d) Androgen deficiency

Ans. b

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41. In a female possibility for occuring acute endometritis is more-

(a) After menopause

(b) After menarchae

(c) After abortion or childbirth

(d) During childhood is

Ans. c

42. Pelvic inflammatory disease is more common in following females-

(a) Menstruating adolescent girls

(b) Having many sexual partners

(c) Previous H/O PID

(d) All of the above

Ans. d

43. In following which statement is false-

(a) PID is common in females who are menstruating

(b) PID is more common in women who are using intra uterine devices

(c) PID is more common in women who are taking oral contraceptives

(d) PID is less common in women having only single sexual partner

Ans. c

44. Clinical manifestation of pelvic inflammatory disease include-

(a) Lower abdominal pain

(b) Fever

(c) Irregular and excessive vaginal bleeding

(d) All of the above

Ans. d

45. In following which is the most reliable method  to diagnose pelvic inflammatory disease-

(a) Laparoscopy

(b) Sonography

(c) Culdocentesis

(d) Blood examination

Ans. a

46. In following which is not a sexually transmitted  disease-

(a) Chancroid

(b) Syphilis

(c) Fibroid uterus

(d) AIDS

Ans. c

47. Sexually transmitted disease lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by-

(a) Traponema pallidum

(b) Chlamydia trachomatis

(c) Hemophilus ducreyi

(d) HIV

Ans. b

48. Who discovered human immuno deficiency virus-

(a) Pasteur and friedmann

(b) Robert hook

(c) Watson

(b) Barre sinoussi

Ans. d

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49.In following which statement is false-

(a) Transmission of HIV from male to female is high

(b) Breast feeding may also a cause of transmission of HIV

(c) The vertical transmission to the newborm of the infected mothers is aobut 14-25%

(d) Transmission of HIV from female to male is high

Ans. d

50. After HIV infection, there is immunudeficiency mainly due to-

(a) Decrease number of CD – 4 T-Lymphocytes

(b) Increase number of CD – 4 T-Lymphocytes

(c) Decrease number of RBC

(d) Increase number of RBC

Ans. a

51. Following tests are done to identify HIV infection except- 

(a) ELISA 

(b) Western-Blot 

(c) Polymerase chain reaction 

(d) Widal test

Ans. d

52. In following which is not a characteristic feature of gonococcal salpingitis- 

(a) It is transmitted by unprotected sexual act 

(b) It is always bilateral infection 

(c) It occures mainly during and after menstruation 

(d) It is always unilateral infection

Ans. d

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53. In following which is a characteristic feature of pyogenic salpingitis- 

(a) It is sexually transmitted 

(b) It is alwavs bilateral infection 

(c) It occures mainly during and after menstruation 

(d) Infection occures mainly after abortion and childbirth fallopian

Ans. d

54. Collection of mucus into the fallopian tube is called as- 

(a) Salpingitis 

(b) Hydrosalpinx 

(c) Fallotubitis 

(d) Hydrofallo 

Ans. b

55 Inflammation of ovary is termed as- 

(a) Oophoritis

(b) Hydrocoele 

(c) Salpingitis  

(d) Oophorectomy

Ans. a

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56 Most commonly used and effective treatment of vaginal trichomoniasis, is- 

(a) Cefixine 

(b) Use of oral contraceptives 

(c) Metronidazole 

(d) Gentamycin 

Ans. c

57 The condition in which complete uterus turns backwards in relation to the long axis of the birth canal, termed as- 

(a) Retroversion of uterus 

(b) Anteversion of uterus 

(c) Prolapse of uterus 

(d) Anteflexion of uterus

Ans. a

58. Normal position of uterus in pelvic cavity is- 

(a) Retroverted and retroflexed 

(b) Retroverted and anteflexed 

(c) Anteverted and retroflexed 

(d) Anteverted and anteflexed

Ans. d

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59. The structure which provides support to the uterus includes- 

(a) Round ligament 

(b) Broad ligament 

(c) Cervico – vaginal junction 

(d) All of the above 

Ans. d

60. Etiological factors responsible for genital prolapse include following except- 

(a) Postmenopausal atrophy 

(b) Raised intra abdominal pressure 

(c) Decresed weight of the uterus 

(d) Congenital weakness of the supporting structures of the uterus

Ans. c

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61. In following which is the most important acquired predisposing factor in genital prolapse- 

(a) Injury to the supporting structures during vaginal delivery. 

(b) Congenital and acquired weakness of the supporting structures of the uterus 

(c) Undernutrition 

(d) Increased weight of the uterus

Ans. a

62. Degree of uterine prolapse in which the external os descends outside the vaginal opening but the uterine body does not protrudes and still remains inside the uterus- 

(a) Ist degree 

(b) Ilnd degree 

(c) IIIrd degree

(d) IVth degree

Ans. b

63 The type of uterine prolapse in which the uterine body protrudes outside the introitus- 

(a) Ist degree 

(b) Ilnd degree 

(c) Illrd degree 

(d) IVth degree

Ans. c

64. Clinical manifestation of genital prolapse includes- 

(a) Dysuria 

(b) Backache 

(c) Difficulty in passing stool 

(d) All 

Ans. d

65. When a female moves about, she feels that something is coming down through vagina. The female is suffering from- 

(a) DUB

(b) Genital prolapse 

(c) Recto vaginal fistula 

(d) Cervical cancer

Ans. b

66. In how many cases of total infertility, males 66 are responsible- 

(a) 8 – 10% of total cases 

(b) 20 – 25% of total cases 

(c) 30 – 40% of total cases 

(d) 50 – 60% of total cases 

Ans. c

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67. In kartagener syndrome- 

(a) Excessively production of sperms 

(b) There is loss of ciliary function and sperm motility 

(c) Ability of sperms to penetrate ovum increases 

(d) Ability of vaginal canal to receive sperms increases

Ans. b

68. Congenital factor related to male that is responsible for infertility includes- 

(a) Undescended testes 

(b) Hypospadias 

(c) Kartagener syndrome 

(d) All 

Ans. d

69. A male with hypospadias is- 

(a) Unable to produce sperms 

(b) Unable to deposit sperms in vagina 

(c) Unable to pass urine 

(d) Unable to deposit sperms deep in vagina

Ans. d

70. The condition that raise the scrotal temperature includes- 

(a) Varicocele 

(b) Big hydrocele 

(c) Filariasis 

(d) All 

Ans. d

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71. Which is the common chromosomal abnormality in azoospermic male- 

(a) Down’s syndrome 

(b) Turner syndrome 

(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome 

(d) Kartagener syndrome

Ans. c

72. Testicular failure due to deficiency of gonadotrophin is termed as- 

(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome 

(b) Kallmann’s syndrome 

(c) Kartagener syndrome 

(d) Young’s syndrome

Ans. b

73. Fault in male that may cause infertility includes- 

(a) Mumps orchitis 

(b) Increased scrotal temperature 

(c) Undescended testes 

(d) All 

Ans. d

74. In following which factor is not responsible for infertility- 

(a) Luteal phase defect 

(b) Acute retroverted uterus 

(c) Anteverted uterus 

(d) Vaginal atresia

Ans. c

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75. pH of normal semen is- 

(a) 3.5 – 4.5 

(b) 5.5 – 6.5 

(c) 7.2 – 7.8 

(d) 8.5 – 9.3 

Ans. c

76. Normal sperm concentration in semen is about- 

(a) 5 million/ml or more 

(b) 10 million/ml or more 

(c) 20 million/ml or more 

(d) 50 million/ml or more

Ans. c

77 Absence of semen formation is known as- 

(a) Aspermia 

(b) Azoospermia 

(c) Asthenospermia 

(d) Tetratozoospermia

Ans. a

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78 The condition in which there is spermatozoa are absent in the semen, is termed as- 

(a) Aspermia

(b) Azoospermia 

(c) Asthenospermia 

(d) Tetratozoospermia

Ans. b

79 Reduction in the motility of sperms is known as- 

(a) Aspermia 

(b) Azoospermia 

(c) Asthenospermia 

(d) Tetratozoospermia 

Ans. c

80 The condition in which there is high number of morphologically abnormal spermatozoa in the semen, is known as- 

(a) Aspermia 

(b) Azoospermia

(c) Asthenospermia 

(d) Tetratozoospermia

Ans. d

81. Absence of fructose content in the semen indicates- 

(a) Absence of one testes 

(b) Congential absence of prostate gland 

(c) Absence of testosterone hormone 

(d) Congenital absence of seminal vesicle

Ans. d

82. In following which medicine is used to treat infertility due to presence of antisperm antibodies- 

(a) GNRH therapy 

(b) Dexamethasone 

(c) Doxycycline 

(d) Clomiphene citrate 

Ans. b

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83. In a female with infertility, which drug is used in induction of ovulation-

(a) Clomiphene citrate 

(b) FSH 

(c) GnRH 

(d) All of the above

Ans. d

84. In following which is the common treatment of luteal phase defect- 

(a) Progesterone therapy 

(b) Oestrogen therapy 

(c) Antibiotics 

(d) Dexamethasone 

Ans. a

85. Following are the indications of intrauterine insemination except- 

(a) Cervical stenosis 

(b) Hypospadias 

(c) Asthenospermia 

(d) Recurrent abortions

Ans. d

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86. Amount of washed and concentrated sperm that is administered into the uterine cavity during- artificial insemination- 

(a) One ml 

(b) Two ml 

(c) 0.3 ml 

(d) 0.1 ml 

Ans. c

87. At which stage of fertilized ova, is transferred into the uterine cavity during In vitro fertilization- 

(a) 1-2 cell stage 

(b) 2 – 4 cell stage 

(c) 4-8 cell stage 

(d) 16 – 24 cell stage

Ans. c

88. Health hazard of assisted reproductive technology includes- 

(a) Multiple pregnancy 

(b) Ectopic pregnancy 

(c) Psychological stress

(d) All of the above 

Ans. d

89.In following which is the commonest benign solid tumor in female- 

(a) Fibroid uterus 

(b) Vaginal cyst 

(c) Cervical cyst 

(d) Cervical cancer 

Ans. a

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90. Fibroid uterus is more common in- 

(a) Nulliparous women

(b) Postmenopausal women 

(c) Multiparity 

(d) After 35 years of age

Ans. a

91. In following which is the classic symptom of uterine fibroid-

(a) Menorrhagia 

(b) Pain in lower abdomen 

(c) Dysmenorrhoea

(d) Purulent vaginal dischrage 

Ans. a

92. In following which is the life threatening complication of fibroids- 

(a) Prolonged menorrhagia 

(b) Severe infection leading to peritonitis

(c) Sarcoma 

(d) All of the above

Ans. d

93. What do you mean by dyspareunia- 

(a) Painful menstruation 

(b) Painful breathing 

(c) Pain during sexual act 

(d) Pain during eating 

Ans. c

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94. Following are the menstrual disorders except- 

(a) Oligomenorrhea 

(b) Polymenorrhea

(c) Amenorrhea 

(d) Rhinorrhea 

Ans. d

95. What is the meaning of endometriosis- 

(a) Inflammation of endometrium 

(b) Enlarged endometerium 

(c) Presence of functioing endometrium else where in the body other than uterine mucosa 

(d) Carcinoma of endometerium 

Ans. c

96. Common site of endometriosis is- 

(a) Ovary 

(b) Abdominal scar after tubectomy 

(c) Abdominal scar after LSCS 

(d) All

Ans. d

97. In following which is not a symptom of endometriosis- 

(a) Dysmenorrhoea 

(b) Hypomenorrhoea 

(c) Pain during sexual act 

(d) Pelvic pain

Ans. b

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98. Drug used for treating endometriosis includes- 

(a) Combined estrogen and contraceptive oral pill progestogen 

(b) Danazol 

(c) GNRH analogues 

(d) All of the above 

Ans. d

99. In stage II cervical cancer- 

(a) Carcinoma strictly confined to the cervix

(b) The carcinoma extends beyond the cervix buw not to the pelvic wall 

(c) The carcinoma has extended to the true pelvis 

(d) The carcinoma has extended beyond the true pelvis

Ans. b

100. Staging of cervical cancer is primarily based on- 

(a) Severity of symptoms 

(b) Age of female 

(c) Clinical examination 

(d) All

Ans. c


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