Indian Polity MCQ pdf | Indian Constitution with Answers

Indian Polity MCQ pdf Indian Constitution with Answers
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Multiple choice questions of Subject Judiciary Topic India Constitution ( Indian Polity MCQ pdf | Indian Constitution with Answers Quiz ) for Entrances (Entrance Exam) Conducted by different Central and State Universities are given below.

MCQ on Indian Constitution with Answers pdf | Indian Polity mcq online test

1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by

(a) The President of India

(b) The Governor.

(c) The Prime Minister.

(d) The Chief Justice of India

Ans. a

2. The Supreme Court of India consist of

(a) Chief Justice of India & 7 Judges.

(b) Chief Justice of India & 9 Judges.

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) Chief Justice of India & 30 Judges & 25 Judges.

Ans. d

3. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President with consultation of

(a) Chief Justice of India and other Judges.

(b) Chief Justice of the High Court and other Judges.

(c) Chief Justice of India and Attorney General.

(d) Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice of High Court.

Ans. a

4. A Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office up to the age of

(a) 62 years.

(b) 65 years.

(c) 60 years.

(d) 58 years.

Ans. b

5. To be a Judge of the Supreme Court a person have to be a Judge of the High Court for a period of

(a) 10 years.

(b) 05 years.

(c) 15 years.

(d) 02 years.

Ans. b

6. To be a Judge of the Supreme Court a person should be an advocate of a High Court for

(a) 15 years.

(b) 10 years.

(c) 5 years.

(d) 25 years.

Ans. b

7. To be a Judge of the Supreme Court a person should be a

(a) An academician of law distinguished

(b) A distinguished jurist

(c) a distinguished lawyer

(d) a distinguished Judge

Ans. b

8. President can appoint an acting Chief Justice

(1) if office of Chief Justice of India is vacant

(2) when the Chief Justice is by reason of absence or otherwise unable to perform duties of his office.

(3) is out of India

(4) is on leave.

Choose the correct answer.

(a) (1) & (2)

(b) (1) & (4)

(c) (1) & (3)

(d) (1), (2). (3) & (4)

Ans. a

9. A law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on

(a) all courts within the territory of India

(b) The High Court

(c) Tribunals

(d) District Courts.

Ans. a

10. Choose the correct answer

(1) The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to adjudicate any dispute between the Govt. of India and one or more States,

(2) between Govt. of India and any States on one side and one or more other States on the other or

(3) between two or more states.

(a) (1) & (2)

(b) (2) & (3)

(c) (1) & (3)

(d) (1). (2) & (3)

Ans. d

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11. The Supreme Court can advise on a question of law or fact which is of public importance when it is referred for its opinion by

(a) President of India

(b) Governor of State

(c) Prime Minister of India

(d) The Law Minister

Ans. a

12. Chose the correct answer

(a) The Supreme Court is a court of record

(b) The Supreme Court has power to punish for contempt.

(c) The Supreme Court is a court of record and the power to punish for contempt.

(d) The Supreme Court has no power to punish for contempt.

Ans. c

13. A Judge of the High Court can be appointed by the President in consultation with

(1) Chief Justice of India

(2) Governor of State

(3) Chief Justice of the High Court

(4) All

(a) (1) & (2)

(b) (2) & (4)

(c) (3) & (4)

(d) (4)

Ans. d

14. A Chief Justice of the High Court can be appointed by the President in consultation with

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Governor of State

(c) Chief Minister of State

(d) Chief Justice of India and Governor of State 1

Ans. d

15. A Judge of the High Court shall hold office till the age of

(a) 60 years

(b) 62 years

(c) 65 years

(d) 58 years

Ans. b

16. An Additional or acting Judge of the High Court can be appointed by the President for a period of

(a) 2 years

(b) 3 years

(c) 1 years

(d) 5 years

Ans. a

17. An additional or acting Judge of the High Court shall hold office up to the age of

(a) 65 years

(b) 62 years

(c) 60 years

(d) 58 years

Ans. b

18. To be a Judge of the High Court a person must have%;

(1) hold judicial office for 10 years

(2) 10 year of an advocate of the High Court

(3) 5 years of the Supreme Court

(4) 7 years of the Subordinate Court.

(a) (1) & (2)

(b) (2) & (3)

(c) (1), (2) & (3)

(d) (1) & (2)

Ans. a

19. The Supreme Command of the defence forces of the Union vests with

(a) The President

(b) Vice President

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Defence Minister.

Ans. a

20. Choose the correct answer The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of

(i) elected members of both Houses of Parliament.

(ii) the elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the states.

(iii) the elected members of Rajya Sabha

(iv) the elected members of Lok Sabha

(a) (i)

(b) (i) & (iii)

(c) (i) & (ii)

(d) (iv) Ans. c

21. The President of India holds the office for a term of

(a) 2 years

(b) 6 years.

(c) 5 years.

(d) 4 years.

Ans. c

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22. The President of India is administered oath of office by

(a) The Chief Justice of India or in his absence senior most Judge of the Supreme Court.

(b) The Prime Minister.

(c) The VicePresident

(d) Judge of the High Court

Ans. a

23. The Vice President of India is exofficio Chairman of the

(a) Council of State ( Rajya Sabha)

(b) Lok Sabha

(c) State Assemblies

(d) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha

Ans. a

24. The oath of office to the Vice President is administered by

(a) The President or some person appointed by him.

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Governor of State

Ans. a

25. Power to grant pardon, suspension, remit, commute the sentence lies will

(a) The President

(b) The Prime Minister

(c) The Chief Justice of India

(d ) The VicePresident

Ans. a

26. The President of India can have aid of the office of

(a) The VicePresident

(b) The Prime Minister

(c) The Speaker

(d) Councils of Ministers headed by PM

Ans. d

27. The Prime Minister is appointed by

(a) The President of India

(b) Vice President

(c) The Chief Justice of India

(d) Council of State

Ans. a

28. Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

(a) House of people ( Lok Sabha)

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) to the people

(d) to the State Assemblies.

Ans. a

29. Attorney General is appointed by

(a) Law Minister

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Vice President

(d) The President

Ans. d

30. The Constitution of India was adopted on

(a) 26 January, 1950

(b) 26 November, 1949

(c) 15 August, 1947

(d) 24 January, 1948

Ans. b

31. The constitution of India came into force on

(a) 24 January, 1948

(b) 15 August, 1947

(c) 26, January, 1950

(d) 26 November, 1949

Ans. c

32. The adoption day of Constitution of India is observed as Law D

(a) 26 January

(b) 26 November

(c) 15 August

(d) 30 January.

Ans. b

33. The word “SOVERIEGN, DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC,” was added to the preamble by an amendment of the constitution

(a) 2nd

(b) 10th

(c) 14th

(d) 42nd

Ans. d

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34. The word “UNITY OF THE NATION” was added to the preamble by an amendment

(a) 10

(b) 42nd

(c) 14th

(d) 44

Ans. b

35. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by

(a) The President

(b) The vice President

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Chief Justice of India

Ans. a

36. The Comptroller and Auditor General takes the oath before

(a) President or his nominee

(b) VicePresident

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans. a

37. The salaries and other expenses of the office of CAG of India and his office are charged upon

(a) Budget

(b) Consolidated fund of India

(c) Ministry of Finance

(d) Ministry of personal

Ans. b

38. Audit report of the CAG of India relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to

(a) The President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Vice President

(d) The Speaker

Ans. a

39. The Audit report of the CAG of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to

(a) Chief Minister

(b) The Speaker of State

(c) The Governor

(d) Deputy Chief Minister

Ans. c

40. The Governor of State is appointed by

(a) The President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Vice President

(d) Law Minister

Ans. a

41. The Governor holds office for a term of

(a) 5 years

(b) 6 years

(c) 7 years

(d ) 4 years

Ans. a

42. The Governor is administered the oath of office by

(a) Chief Justice of the High Court in his absence the Senior most Judge.

(b) Chief Minister.

(c) The Speaker of Legislative Assembly,

(d) The Law Minister

Ans. a

43. Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offenee against any law relating to a matter to executive power of the State extends vests with

(a) Chief Minister

(b) Speaker of Legislative Assembly

(c) Chief Justice of the High Court

(d) Governor

Ans. d

44. Advocate General of State is appointed by

(a) Governor

(b) Chief Minister

(c) Chief Justice of the High Court

(d ) Speaker of State Assembly.

Ans. a

45. Fundamental Rights enshrined under part three of the constitution are enforceable against

(a) Police action

(b) executive action

(c) Private action

(d) State action

Ans. d

46. The term ‘state’ used under article 12 of the constitution include

(a) The Government and parliament of India

(b) The Government and the legislature of India

(c) All legal and other authorities within the territory of India or under control of Government of India

(d) All of the above.

Ans. d

47. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law or the equal protection M the laws to

(a) All persons living within the territory of India

(b) All Indian Citizens living in India

(c) All persons domiciled India

(d) All foreigners living in India

Ans. a

48. The word ‘any person’ used under article 14 of the constitution means

(a) Citizens of India living in India

(b) Natural persons.

(c) foreigners living India

(d) citizens and noncitizens living within the territory of India

Ans. d

49. Article 15 (1) prohibits the State to discriminate against citizens on the ground

(a) Religion

(b) race and cast

(c) sex, place of birth

(d) all of the above

Ans. d

50. Choose the correct answer.

(a) Article 15(3) empowers the State to make any special provision.

(b) Article 15 (3) empowers the State for making provision for woman and children.

(c) Article 15 (3) empowers the State to make special provision for foreigners.

(d) Article 15 (3) empowers the State to make special provision for aged people only.

Ans. b

51. Article 15 does not permit the State to make any special provision for

(a) Socially and educationally backward classes of citizens.

(b) SC only.

(c) ST only.

(d) Economically backward classes.

Ans. d

52. Under Article 16, the word any employment or appointment to any office means

(a) private employment

(b) private and public employment

(c) only of public employment

(d) all of the above.

Ans. c

53. Untouchability has been abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 17

(d) none of the above.

Ans. c

54. State has been prohibited from conferring any title’ except

(a) An academic distinction

(b) military award

(c) only a

(d) both (a) & (b)

Ans. d

55. The following do not amount to title’

(a) Bharat Ratana

(b) Padma Vibhushan

(c) Padma Bhushan

(d) all of the above.

Ans. d

56. Rights under article 19 are

(a) available to citizens of India

(b) available to all persons in India

(c) available to NRI

(d) available to persons of foreign origin.

Ans. a

57. Rights under article 19 are subject to

(a) reasonable restriction

(b) no restriction

(c) absolute restriction

(d) none of the above.

Ans. a

58. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once

(a) is contained in the constitution.

(b) is contained in the I.P.C.

(c) is principle of natural justice.

(d) is principle of equity.

Ans. a

59. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself

(a) is contained in evidence act.

(b) is contained in constitution of India

(c) is principle of natural justice.

(d) is principle of equity.

Ans. b

60. No person can be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence

(a) is contained in constitution of India

(b) is contained in IPC

(c ) is principle of natural justice.

(d) is principle of equity

Ans. a

61. Protection of life and personal liberty contained in article 21 of the constitution

(a) is constitutional right

(b) is a natural right

(c) is an equity right

(d) none of the above

Ans. a

62 . Right to life under article 21 includes the “right to enjoyment of pollution free water” was proponded in

(a) In B.L. Wadhera Vs. Union of India

(b) In K.M. Abdulla Kumhi & Anr. Vs. Union of India

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

Ans. a

63. Right to free and compulsory education to all the children of the age to 14 under article 21 A of the constitution has been inserted by

(a) 86 amendment of the constitution

(b) 42nd amendment of the constitution

(c) 49h amendment of the constitution

(d) 80h amendment of the constitution

Ans. a

64. The word ” the State” in respect of Directive Principles

(a) has a meaning to be that of fundamental rights.

(b) means only union of state legislature.

(c) all three Government organs

(d) means the same as in connection with the fundamental right.

Ans. d

65. The Directive Principles of State Policy are

(a) not enforceable in any court of law

(b) enforceable in a court of law

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) none of the above.

Ans. a

66. Directive Principles of State Policy are

(a) fundamental in the governance of a state

(b) fundamental in the governance of the country

(c) fundamental in the governance of judiciary

(d) none of the above

Ans. b

67. While making laws the Directive Principles of State Policy have to be

(a) not applied by the state

(b) looked into

(c) applied by the state.

(d) none of the above.

Ans. c

68. The object of Directive Principles is to embodied concept of

(a) a welfare state.

(b) socialistic state

(c) economist state

(d) none of the above Ans. a

69. Directive principles been borrowed from

(a) constitution of U.S. A.

(b) constitution of Canada

(c) constitution of Ireland

(d) constitution of Switzerland

Ans. c

70 . Concept of welfare state has laid more emphasis on

(a) fundamental rights.

(b) preamble

(c) directive principles.

(d) fundamental duties

Ans. c

71. Which is the longest Constitution of the world

(a) Constitution of United States.

(b) Constitution of South Africa

(c) Constitution of India

(d) Constitution of Canada

Ans. c

72. How many articles are there in the Constitution of India

(a) 395

(b) 444

(c) 290

(d) 412 Ans. b

73. The soul of our Constitution is called

(a) Unity

(b) Preamble

(c) The Supreme Court

(d) Parliament

Ans. b

74. How many schedules are there in our Constitution

(a) 21

(b) 20

(c) 12

(d) 22

Ans. c

75. Preamble of the our Constitution has been amended

(a) twice

(b) thrice

(c) once

(d) none of the above.

Ans. c

76. Who determine the citizenship of a person

(a) The President

(b) The Central Government.

(c) The Supreme Court.

(d) The State Government.

Ans. c

77. Financial Emergency can be proclaimed by

(a) The President

(b) The Finance Minister

(c) The Prime Minister.

(d) The Central Government.

Ans. a

78. Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by

(a) The Parliament

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The President

(d) The Vice President

Ans. c

79. The head of council of ministers is

(a) The President

(b) The Vice President

(c) The Prime Minister

(d) The Speaker

Ans. c

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80. The Chairman of NITI is

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The President

(c) The Vice President

(d) The Speaker

Ans. a

81. The first law officer of our country is called

(a) Standing Council

(b) Senior Advocate

(c) The Attorney General

(d) Advocate General

Ans. c

82. The President can appoint members representatives (M.P.) the Parliament except 238 (a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 14 Ans. b 83 Who is called the fourth pillar of our constitution

(a) The Attorney General

(b) The Chief Justice

(c) The Comptroller and Auditor General.

(d) The Parliament

Ans. a

84. Comptroller and Auditor General holds office for

(a) 6 years

(b) 5 years

(c) 2 years

(d) 4 years

Ans. a

85. Comptroller and Auditor General holds office upto the age of

(a) 60 years

(b) 65 years.

(c) 62 years.

(d) 58 years.

Ans. b

86. A Judge of High Court can address his resignation to

(a) Chief Justice of the High Court.

(b) Chief Justice of India

(c) The President.

(d) The Law Minister.

Ans. c

87. The Advocate General for the State is appointed by

(a) The President.

(b) The Chief Justice of the High Court.

(c) The Chief Justice of India

(d) The Governor.

Ans. d

88. A Judge of Supreme Court cannot practice after his retirement and during his tenure Choose the correct answer.

(1) In the High Court.

(2) In the Supreme court only.

(3) In the Subordinate Court.

(4) in any court and authority throughout India

(a) (1) & (2)

(b) (2) & (3)

(c) (2)

(d) (1), (2), (3) & (4)

Ans. d

89. The Constitution of India is:

(a) Highly federal

(b) Highly unitary

(c) Neither federal nor unitary

(d) Partly federal and partly unitary

Ans. d

90. The number of Articles and Schedules in original Indian Constitution was

(a) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

(b) 394 Articles and 9 Schedules

(c) 396 Articles and 10 Schedules

(d) 395 Articles and 7 Schedules

Ans. a

91. Sovereignty under Constitution belong to:

(a) The president

(b) The parliament

(c) The people

(d) The executants, judiciary and legislature Ans. c

92. “The Indian Constitution provides a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features .” This statement is of:

(a) Sir Ivor Jennings

(b) A.V.Dicey

(c) Prof K.C. Wheare

(d) S.A. Desmith

Ans. c

93. The basic structure of the Constitution of India is contained in:

(a) Article 21

(b) Article 32

(c) Preamble

(d) Article 14

Ans. c

94. Preamble was amended by which amendment?

(a) 42 Amendment

(b) 44″ Amendment

(c) 39h Amendment

(d) None of the above

Ans. a

95. Preamble is part of Basic Structure in which case it was held?

(a) Keshavananda Bharti Case

(b) Golaaknath Case

( c) Re Berubari Union

(d) None of the above

Ans. a

96. The Preamble of our Constitution proclaims ourselves as a Sovereign Republic. In whom does the Sovereignty vests?

(a) People of India

(b) The Constitution of India

(c) The Parliament

(d) The Supreme Court of India

Ans. a

97. By which amendment, the words Secular and Socialist were Included in the Preamble?

(a) Ist Amendment

(b) 6 Amendment

(c) 42 Amendment

(d) 44 Amendment

Ans. c

98. The Preamble to the Constitution of India:

(a) Contains the Resolution to constitute India into a Socialist Republic, since the framing of the Constitution

(b) The word ‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the Preamble by the 42 Amendment with effect from 3d January, 1977

(c) Never contained the word “Socialist’

(d) The word Socialist’ was dropped by the 42 Amendment (supra) .

Ans. b

99. The word “socialist’ and ‘secular’ were inseted in the preamble of the Indian Constitution by:

(a) 15th Amendment of the Constitution

(b) 49th Amendment of the Constitution

(c) 42 Amendment of the Constitution

(d) 44th Amendment of the Constitution

Ans. c

100. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to:

(a) The Constituent Assembly

(b) The Parliament

(c) The whole society

(d) The people of India

Ans. d

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101. The word “secular used in the Preamble of the Constitution of India means:

(a) The State has no religion of its own

(b) All religions are treated equally

(c ) The State has no common religion

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. d

102. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:

(a) Italian Constitution

(b) Canadian Constitution

(c) French Constitution

(d) Constitution of USA

Ans. d

103. Which of the following is correct about the preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) It was adopted after adoption of operative Articles of Constitution.

(b) It envisages that all citizens have fundamental rights.

(c) It seeks to secure good livelihood to all.

(d) It is not a part of the Constitution.

Ans. a

104. The Preamble to the Indian constitution aims at securing:

(a) Dignity of individual and unity and integrity of the nation

(b) Fundamental Rights to all individuals

(c) Fundamental Right to the citizens of India

(d) Security of tenure to all government servants

Ans. a

105. The authority to alter the boundaries of states in India rests with:

(a) State Government

(b) President

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Parliament

Ans: d

106. The power of Parliament to form new States or alteration of areas and boundaries is drawn from:

(a) List I-Union List Only

(b) List III-Concurrent List also

(c) The Constitution other than Article 246

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

107. Under which article of the Constitution Parliament can create a new state?

(a) Art. 3

(b) Art. 4

(c) Art. 5

(d) Art. 368

Ans: a

108. Which of the following in India is empowered to admit into the Union or establish new State?

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) President

(c) Constitutional Amendment

(d) Parliament

Ans: d

109. Which of the following is a State for the purposes of Article 12?

(a) National council of Educational Research and Training.

(b) Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies.

(c) Indian Oil Corporation.

(d) High Court of Delhi.

Ans: c

110. The Seven Judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India in Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology 2002 (5) SCC 111 overruled its judgements in the case of:

(a) Sabhajit Tewary

(b) R.D. Shetty

(c) Ajay Hasia

(d) G. Basi Reddy

Ans: a

111. The term “law in force” in clause(3) of article 13 means:

(a) Only statutory law

(b) Customs and usages only

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) Newly formed public order only

Ans: c

112. A law, which abridges Fundamental Rights, is not a nullity but remains inoperative till the shadow of Fundamental Rights falls over such rights. This is known as doctrine of

(a) Pleasure

(b) Pith and substance

(c) Eclipse

(d) Severability

Ans: c

113. ‘Equality before law’ & Equal protection of law Article 14 available to whom

(a) Citizens

(b) Non-Citizens

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Ans: c

114. Article 14 of the does not encompass

(a) Equality before law

(b) Equal protection of laws

(c) Protection against arbitrary action

(d) Protection of life and liberty

Ans: d

115. The rigid to ‘equality before the law’ contained in constitution of India is available to:

(a) Natural persons only

(b) Legal persons only

(c) Citizens of India

(d) All persons whether natural or legal

Ans: d

116. Article 14 of Indian Constitution does not prohibit:

(a) air Class legislation

(b) Special treatment to an individual

(c) Treatment unequal at an equal footing

(d) Reasonable classification

Ans: d

117. The equal protection of Law in article 14 has been taken from

(a) British Constitution

(b) American constitution

C Australian Constitution

(d) All of the above

Ans: b

118. The Supreme Court has ruled that a person belonging to a non-class transplanted by adoption or marriage or conversion or any voluntary act to a family belonging to reserved class does not eligible to the benefit of reservation either under Article 15(4) or of the constitution in:

(a) Indra sawheny v. Union of India

(b) Kumari Madhuri Patel v. Additional Commissioner Tribal Develo

(c) Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University

(d) M.D. Kasekar v. Vishwanth Pandu Barde

Ans: b

119. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment:

(a) Is guaranteed to all citizen of India

(b) Is guaranteed to all residents of India

(c) Is available to persons of Indian origin irrespective of citizenship

(d) Is not provided for in the Constitution

Ans: a

120. Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India incorporates the concept

(a) Distributive justice

(b) Numerical equality

(c) Equality by results

(d) Equality of opportunity

Ans: d

121. In Which case the Supreme Court held that the rule that though reserve under Article 16(4) should not exceed 50%, “it is not necessary to out of consideration certain extraordinary situations inherent in the g diversity of this country and the people”?

(a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

(b) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar

(c) State of Kerala v.N.M. Thomas

(d) Balaji v. State of Mysore

Ans: a

122. Right of equality of opportunity in the matters of public employment is under:

(a) Industrial Dispute Act

(b) Contract Act

(c) Constitutional Right

(d) Partnership Act

Ans: c

123. Practising untouchability is:

(a) Violation of a constitutional right

(b) A criminal offence

(c) Both (a) and (b)

 (d) Violation of a legal right only

Ans: c

124. Which Article in the Constitution of India outlaws untouchability and makes it a punishable offence?

(a) Article 12

(b) Article 13

(c) Article 17

(d) Article 18

Ans: c

125. Freedom of speech & expression is available to whom?

(a) Citizens

(b)  All including foreigners Only

(c)  Only a

(d) Only b

Ans: c

126. The Supreme Court has held that right to fly the National Flag with respect And dignity is a fundamental right of every citizen within the meaning of Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India in the case of:

(a) eshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

(b) Abhay Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh

(c) Union of India v. Naveen jindal

(d) Shabnam Hashmi v Union of India

Ans: c

127. Which of the following is a Fundamental Right?

(a) To assemble with arms.

(b) To form co-operative societies.

(c) Right to employment.

(d) Right of religious denominations to own immovable property only for charitable purpose

Ans: b

128. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees citizens the right to settle in any part of the territory of India?

(a) Article 19(1)(a)

(b) Article 19(1)(d)

(c) Article 19(1)(e)

(d) Article 19(1)(g)

Ans: c

129. Right to information is essential part of Article:

(a) 19(1)(a)

(b) 21

(c) 19(1)(g)

(d) None of the above

Ans: a

130. “Autre Fois Acquit” principle is related to:

(a) Retrospective-operators

(b) Double Jeopardy

(c) Ex Post Facto law

(d) Self-incrimination

Ans: b

131. That “no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself” is a/an:

(a) Directive Principle which the State should apply while enacting criminal laws.

(b) Human right under the Universal Declaration of Human Rights to India is a party.

(c) Fundamental right.

(d) Ordinary Constitutional right

Ans: c

132. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Double Jeo means:

(a) Trying two persons jointly for the same offence.

(b) Trying the same person for two offences at two different times.

(c) Putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence.

(d) Trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident

Ans. c

133. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression. Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true.

(b) Both ‘A’ and `R’ are false.

(c) ‘A’ is false but `R’ is true.

(d) None of these.

Ans: c

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134. The prohibition against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once:

(a) Is a principle of natural justice

(b) Is contained in the Indian Penal Code

(c) Is contained in the Constitution of India.

(d) Is a principal evolved by the Courts

Ans: c

135. The doctrine of “double jeopardy” in Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India means 

 (a) No one can be tried and punished more than once for the same offence

(b) One can be tried several times for the same offence

(c) Punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision

(d) One can be tried more than once but punished only once

Ans: a

136. Right against self-incrimination includes:

(a) Right not to give specimen signature

(b) Right to maintain absolute silence

(c) Right not to answer question exposing oneself to confession

(d) Right to answer questions of one’s own choice

Ans: c

137. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that polygraph test Conducted under compulsion is violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?

(a) Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010)

(b) Aruna R. Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)

(c) Rattan Lal v. State of Punjab (1965)

(d) M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (1954)

Ans: a

138. Which of the following is not covered under Article 20 of the constitution of India?

(a) Ex post facto laws

(b) Preventive detention

(c) Double jeopardy

(d) Self-incrimination

Ans: b

139. As per the decision of the supreme court of India in the case of Selvi State of Karnataka, compulsory use of Nacro-Analysis test, Brain mapping and Polygraph test violates:

(a) Article 20(3) of the Constitution

(b) Article 19 (c) of the Constitution

(c) Article 22(d) of the Constitution

(d) of the Constitution Article 23 of the Constitution

Ans: a

140. Consider the following statements: An accused person can be compelled to

  1. give his finger-prints
  2.  give evidence against himself
  3. articipate in the identification parade

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

Ans: d

141. The case of Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh deals with which of the following right?

(a) Right to go Abroad

(b) Right to Education

(c) Right to Privacy

(d) Right of an environment free from pollution

Ans: b

142. Which provision of the Constitution spells out “right to clean environment” as a fundamental right?

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 19

(c) Article 21

(d) Article 22

Ans: c

143. Ban on smoking in public place is a violation of which one of following articles of the constitution?

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 20

(c) Article 21

(d) Article 25

Ans: a

144. In which one of the following cases it was held that telephone tapping is an invasion of right to privacy?

(a) People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India

(b) State of Maharashtra v. Murali Deora

(c) Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh

(d) Mr. X v. Hospital Z

Ans: a

145. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘strike by lawyers is illegal and unethical, and it infringes Fundamental Rights of litigants for speedy trial?

(a) Dr. B.L. Wadhera v. NCT of Delhi

(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(c) Lily Thomas v. Union of India

(d) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

Ans: c

146. In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that right to trade on pavements is a fundamental Rights?

(a) Sukumar Mukherjee v. State of Bengal

(b) Fertilizer Corporation Workers’ Union, Syndri v. Union of India

(c) P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra

(d) Sodan Singh v. New Delhi Municipal Committee

Ans: d

147. Right to life does not include Right to die was held in the case of:

(a) R. Rathinam v. Union of India

(b) State v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia

(c) Chenna Jagdeshwar v. State of Andhra Pradesh

(d) Smt. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

Ans: d

148. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘Right to Sleep’ is a fundamental right?

(a) Naaz Foundation Case

(b) In Re Ramlila Maidan case

(c) Anna Hazare case

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

149. Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during the period of proclamation of emergency?

(a) Freedoms under Article 19

(b) Protection of Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21

(c) Freedom of Conscience under Article 25

(d) Freedom to move Courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights

Ans: b

150. “The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the state may, by law, determine’ provides in:

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 20

(c) Article 21

(d) Article 21A

Ans: d

151. “Right to Education” as Fundamental Right was added in the Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendment?

(a) 42nd

(b) 44th

(c) 84th

(d) 86th

Ans: d

152. As per Article 21A, the state shall provide free and compulsory education Is all children of the age of;

(a) Six to fourteen years

(b) Six to twelve years

(c) Six to ten years

(d) Six to eighteen years

Ans: a

153. In India right to education is a :

(a) Constitutional right

(b) Statuary right

(c) Fundamental right

(d) Common law right

Ans: c

154 In which of the following circumstances, preventive detention can be enforced as per Article 22 of the Constitution?

 (a) During civil riots

(b) During communal violence

(c) During emergency

(d) During normal times

Ans: d

155. Which article provides that employment of children in hazardous factory is prohibited?

(a) Article 21

(b) Article 22

(c) Article 23

(d) Article 24

Ans: d

156. Employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or any other hazardous work is violative of:

(a) Right of freedom

(b) Right against exploitation

(c) Right to life and personal liberty

(d) Right to equality

Ans: b

157. Four answers are given against each of the following questions. One of them is correct. Choose the correct answer:

Article 25 of the Constitution of India is concerned with:

(a) The right to freedom of religion.

(b) The right of equality.

(c) The right to freedom of work.

(d) Cultural and educational rights.

Ans: a

158. Article 29(2) of the Constitution provides that “No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on, grounds only of:

(a) Religion, race, caste, sex, language or any of them.

(b) Race, caste, sex, language or any of them

(c) Religion, race, caste, place of birth, language or any of them

(d) Religion, race, caste, language or any of them

Ans: d

159. Article 30 guarantees the right:

(a) To freedom of religion

(b) To minorities to establish educational institutions of their choice

(c) To be informed of the grounds for one’s arrest

(d) Against trafficking and forced labour

Ans: b

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160. Right to establish and administer educational institutions is guaranteed to the minorities based on:

 (a) Language

(b) Religion

(c) Religion or language

(d) Religion and language.

Ans: c

161. The writ of Habeas corpus means:

(a) To produce the Body of a person illegally detained before a Court

(b) Respect the Human Rights of a person

(c) Stop the violation of a right of a man

(d) None of the above

Ans: a

162. The writ of Certiorari can be issued against:

(a) A person exercising purely administrative powers

(b) Against a Minister

(c) Against any Quasi-Judicial or Judicial authority

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

163. Writ of “Quo Warranto” is related with:

 (a) Illegal detention of a person

(b) Want of Jurisdiction of a court

(c) Illegal holder of a Public Office

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

164. The principle of “res judicata” does not apply in case of writ of:

(a) Habeas corpus

(b) Mandamus

(c) Quo-warranto

(d) Prohibition

Ans: a

165. The right to Constitutional remedies in India is available to:

(a) Citizens of India only

(b) All persons, in case of infringement of any Fundamental Right

(c) All people, for enforcing any of the Fundamental Right, Conferred on them

(d) An aggrieved individual alone

Ans: c

166. Which of the following is not a writ mentioned in the Constitution?

(a) Quo Warranto

(b) Certiorari

(c) Prohibition

(d) Interrogatory

Ans: d

167. “Habeas Corpus” literally means:

(a) Produce the body

(b) Produce the record

(c) Produce the evidence

(d) Produce the testimony

Ans: a

168. Which of the following writs can be sought to be issued to quash unconstitutional appointment to a public officer:

(a) “Quo-Warranto”

(b) Mandamus

(c) Prohibition

(d) Certiorari

Ans: a

169. The Right to move the Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed under:

(a) Article 226

(b) Article 14

(c) Article 32

(d) Article 33

Ans: c

170. Which of the following fundamental rights was described by B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul” of the constitution”?

(a) Right to constitutional remedies

(b) Right of freedom and speech

(c) Right to life and liberty

(d) Right to religion

Ans: a

171. The royal command of a Court for enforcement of a Fundamental Right is called:

(a) Public Interest Litigation

(b) Writ

(c) Direction

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

172. “A” and “B” were the candidates for the post of Professor in a Universit “B” is selected. “A” challenges the selection and appointment. What Nil he should pray for?

(a) Mandamus

(b) Certiorari

(c) Prohibition

(d) Quo warranto

Ans: d

173. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Writ of Habeas Corpus Writ of Quo Warranto Writ of Certiorari Writ of Prohibition available against private individual well.

(b) Available against subordinate coui only.

(c) available against automomous bodi only.

(d) available against public servants on

Ans: a

174. Who can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights?

(a) Supreme Court

(b) Parliament

(c) President

(d) None of these

Ans: b

175. It used to be a Fundamental Right but is now a legal right only:

(a) Cultural and Educational Rights

(b) Right to Property

(c) Right against Exploitation

(d) Right to Religious Freedom

Ans: b

176. Fundamental Rights are contained in which Part of the Constitution India?

(a) Part II

(b) Part III

(c) Part IV

(d) Part V

Ans: b

177. Which right is a constitutional right but not a fundamental right?

(a) Right to life and liberty

(b) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India

(c) Right to form an association

(d) Right to hold property

Ans: d

178. Right to property in India is:

(a) Fundamental right

(b) Statutory right

(c) Directive principle of State Policy

(d) Not recognized

Ans: b

179. The Directive Principles are:

(a) Justiciable the same way as the fundamental rights.

(b) Justiciable though not the same way, as the fundamental rights.

(c) Decorative portions of the Indian Constitution.

(d) Not justifiable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country

Ans:

180. The binding force behind the Directive Principles of State Policy is:

(a) Public Opinion

(b) Government

(c) Constitution

(d) Administration

Ans: d

181. Directive Principles of State Policy are:

(a) Justiciable

(b) Non justiciable

(c) enforceable

(d) none of above

Ans: b

182. The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental for the:

(a) Upliftment of backward classes

(b) Protection of individual rights

(c) Administration of justice

(d) Governance of state

Ans: d

183. Article 39 of the Constitution of India obliges the State to secure:

(a) An adequate means of livelihood

(b) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(c) The material resources are so distributed to seve the common good

(d) The health and strength of workers men and women and the tender age of children are not abused and the citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength

Ans: a

184. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’, is a:

(a) Directive Principle of State Policy

(b) Statutory provision in Labour Law

(c) Fundamental Right

(d) Matter of State to pass Bill

Ans: a

185. Which of the following is a Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) To provide paternity leave.

(b) To organize Gram Sabhas.

(c) To provide for participation of workers in management of industries.

(d) To take steps for separation of judictary from legislature.

Ans: c

186. Which Article under the Constitution of India talks about the participation of workers in the management of Industries?

(a) 43

(b) 43A

(c) 43B

(d) 42

Ans: b

187. Article 48A of the Constitution of India deals with:

(a) Right to work, education and public assistance

(b) Living wage, etc. for workers

(c) Separation of Judiciary from executive

(d) Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.

Ans: d

188. Article 48A and Article 51A (g) were inserted in the Constitution by:

(a) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976

(b) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1978

(c) The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1978

(d) The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978

Ans: b

189. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India, who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his children or as the case may be; ward between the age of six and fourteen years.” By which Constitutional Amendment Act, this duty included?

(a) By 42nd Amendment

(b) By 44th Amendment

 (c) By 86th Amendment

(d) By 92nd Amendment

Ans: c

190. Fundamental Duties of citizens of India are found in the following Article of the Constitution:

 (a) Article 23

(b) Article 40

(c) Article 49

(d) Article 51A

Ans: d

191. Article 51A provides for the fundamental duties of:

(a) Citizens of India

(b) Foreigners

(c) Public Servants

(d) None of the above.

Ans: a

192. The executive power of the Union is vested in the:

 (a) Prime Minister

(b) Union of India

(c) President of India

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

193. The method of proportional representation is adopted in the election of:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Governor

(d) Chief Justice of India

Ans: b

194. The President of India may be removed from his office on which of the following grounds?

(a)Misbehavior

(b) Incapacity

(c) Violation of the Constitutions

(d) All of the above

Ans: c

195. The President’s resignation has to be addressed to the Vice-President with communicate the same to the:

(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(b) Chief Justice of India

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Speaker of the House of People.

Ans: d

196. Under the Constitution of India. The President:

(a) Is eligible for re-election

(b) Is not eligible for re-election

(c) Mere is no such provision

(d) None of the above.

Ans: a

197. For the post of President of India the minimum age of the person should

(a) 21 years

(b) 25 years

(c) 30 years

(d) 35 years

Ans: d

198. If the President of India is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by:

(a) Rajya Sabha only

(b) Lok Sabha only

(c) Either House of Parliament

(d) Joint Parliamentary Session.

Ans: c

199. Where can impeachment proceedings against the President be initiated?

(a) In Lok Sabha

(b) At a joint sitting of the two Houses specially called for the purpose

(c) In either House of Parliament

(d) In the Supreme Court

Ans: c

200. A resolution for the impeachment of the President must be passed by:

(a) Majority of the total strength of the House and two-third of the present and voting members

(b) Two-third of the present and voting members in the House

 (c) Two-third of the total membership of the House

(d) Majority of the total membership of the House

Ans: c

201. Election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by ream of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, shall be held as soot a possible after, and in no case later than:

(a) One month from the date of occurrence of the vacancy

(b) Two months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy

(c) Three months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy

(d) Six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy.

Ans: d

202. Who presides over the sessions of Rajya Sabha?

(a) President

(b) Speaker

(c) Deputy Speaker

(d) Vice-President

Ans: d

203. Who is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Vice President of India

(b) President of India

(c) Chief Minister of India

(d) Prime Minister of India

Ans: a

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204. The Vice President of India is:

(a) Directly elected by the people

(b) Elected by the same electoral college which elects the President

(c) Elected by the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in a joint sittin,

(d) Elected by the members of Rajya Sabha only

Ans: c

205. Who among the following is not appointed by the President of India?

(a) Governor of the State

(b) Chief Justice of the High Court

(c) Vice President

(d) Judge of the Supreme Court of India

Ans: c

206. The Vice-President can be removed from his office before expiry of his term by the—

(a) President

(b) Members of the Council of States and agreed by the House of the People

(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha

(d) The Supreme Court.

Ans: b

207. Vice President of India makes and subscribes oath or affirmation before: —

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) President of India

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Chief Election Commissioner

Ans: b

208. If the positions of President and Vice President are vacant, who among lie following officiates as the President of India?

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

209. According to Article 71 Disputes arising in connection with the elections of a President or Vice-President are to be enquired into and decided by

(a) Supreme Court

(b) High Court

(c) Both by High Court and Supreme Court

(d) Tribunal established for that purpose

Ans: a

210. Which of following decides the dispute of election of the President?

(a) High Court

(b) Supreme Court

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

211. The President shall have the power under Article 72 of the Constitution od India to commute the sentence of any person where:

(a) Punishment or sentence is by a Court Marshal.

(b) Punishment or sentence is for an offence against law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.

(c) Sentence is a sentence of death

(d) All of the above.

Ans: d

212. The Power to grant pardons, reprieves respites or remissions of punishment etc_ under Article 72 to Constitution is exercised by the President of India:

(a) On the advice of the Prime Minister

(b) On his own as Head of the Union

(c) On the advice of the Council of Ministers

(d) On the advice of the Law Ministers

Ans: c

213. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the power of the President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases?

(a) Article 71

(b) Article 72

(c) Article 162

(d) Article 77

Ans: b

214. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either house of Parliament?

(a) Three months

(b) Six months

(c) One year

(d) There is no time limit prescribed

Ans: b

215. The Prime Minister is responsible to the:

(a) Council of Ministers

(b) President

(c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Lok Sabha

Ans: d

216. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?

(a) Members of the House of People

(b) Members of the Parliament,

(c) The President of India

(d) None of the above.

Ans: c

217. What is the maximum prescribed number of Union Ministers?

(a) Ten percent of total number of members of Parliament

(b) Ten percent of total number of members of the House of the People

(c) Fifteen percent of total number of members of the House of the People

(d) 85

Ans: c

218. Highest Law Officer of State is:

(a) Attorney-General

(b) Advocate-General

(c) Solicitor-General

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

219. Attorney General holds office till the pleasure of:

(a) Parliament

(b) Prime Minister

(c) President

(d) Government of India

Ans: c

220. Position of President of India is like:

(a) British Monarch

(b) President of USA

(c) German Chancellor

(d) President of Canada

Ans: a

221. Who among the following got the Bharat Ratna Award before becoming the President of India?

(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) V.V. Giri

(d) S. Radhakrishnan

Ans: a

222. A Candidate for the office of the President of India must be proposed by:

(a) At least 50 electors

(b) At least 200 electors

(c) At least 100 electors

(d) At least 150 electors 

Ans: a

223. Which one of the following statements is correct:

A joint session of the Parliament shall be to

(a) Convened by the Speaker under Article 108.

(b) Presided over by the senior most member of the House.

(c) Convened by the President under Article 108 to break impasse in the passage of a Bill

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

224. Parliament of India shall consist of:

(a) Two Houses

(b) Two Houses and Ministers.

(c) Two Houses, Ministers and Attorney General.

(d) Two Houses and the President.

Ans: d

225. How many members of Rajya Sabha can be nominated by the President of India from amongst persons who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service etc.:

(a) 2

(b) 10

(c) 12

(d) 6

Ans: c

226. How many elected members are there in the Council of States?

(a) 250

(b) 240

(c) 238

(d) 235

Ans: c

227. Who has got the power to dissolve the Rajaya Sabha?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) President of India

(c) Prime Minister of India

(d) It cannot be dissolved.

Ans: d

228. What is the duration of The Council of States?

(a) Six years

(b) Five years.

(c) Four years

(d) None of the above

Ans: d

229. How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every two years?

(a) 1/4

(b) 1/3

(c) 1/2

(d) 1/10

Ans: b

230. The minimum age to qualify for election to Lok Sabha is:

(a) 35 years

(b) 25 years

(c) 21 years

(d) 18 years

Ans: b

231. To contest the election of Rajya Sabha a person shall not be less than:

(a) 25 years

(b) 30 years

(c) 35 years

(d) 40 years

Ans: b

232. The sitting of Lok Sabha can be terminated through:

(a) Adjournment

(b) Prorogation

(c) Dissolution

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

233. What can be the maximum gap between the two sessions of Parliament?

(a) Three months

(b) Four Months

(c) Six months

(d) Nine months

Ans: c

234. Prorogation of the House means:

(a) A House has been brought in Session

(b) The Session of the House has been terminated.

(c) The House itself stands terminated

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

235. Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of Member of Parliament?

(a) President of India

(b) Concerned House of Parliament

(c) Election Commission

(d) President in consultation with Election Commission

Ans: d

236. An ordinance promulgated by the President:

(a) Has an indefinite life

(b) One year

(c) Must be laid before Parliament when it re-assembles

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

237. An ordinance can be issued by the President at any time when:

(a) The Parliament is in session

(b) Lok Sabha is not in session

(c) Rajya Sabha is not in session

(d) Both the houses or Parliament are not in session

Ans: d

238. An Ordinance lapses:

(a) After six months of is promulgation

(b) After six weeks after its publication in the official gazette

(c) After six week from the date of assembly of House(s) of the legislature

(d) Whenever the Council of Ministers takes a decision

Ans: c

239. Article 123 of the Indian Constitution deals with:

(a) Election of the President

(b) Term of the Office of the President

(c) Conditions of the President’s Office

(d) Power of the President to Promulgate Ordinance.

Ans: d

240. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is afan:

(a) Executive power

(b) Legislative power

(c) Constituent power

(d) Quasi-judicial power

Ans: b

241. The NJAC Act was declared as unconstitutional in:

(a) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India

(b) In re Presidential Reference of 1998

(c) Sakal Chand v. Union of India

(d) SC Adv. on Record Association v. Union of India

Ans: d

242. President can appoint distinguished jurist as a Judge:

(a) Of the High Court only

(b) Of the Supreme Court only

(c) Of the High Court as well as Supreme Court

(d) Neither of the High Court nor of the Supreme Court

Ans: b

243. A Professor of a University, who is an eminent jurist, is eligible to be appointed as a judge of the:

(a) High Court

(b) Both High Court and Supreme Court

(c) Neither in the Supreme Court nor in the High court

(d) Supreme Court

Ans: d

244. The current sanctioned strength of the Judges (including the Chief Justice) of the Supreme Court of India is:

(a) 25

(b) 27

(c) 29

(d) 31

Ans: d

245. Which amongst the following Articles in the Constitution of India describes the Supreme Court as a Court of Record?

(a) Article 124

(b) Article 125

 (c) Article 126

(d) Article 129

Ans: d

246. The supreme Court of India shall be a court of record and shall have al the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself; provides under:

(a) Article 21

(b) Article 32

(c) Article 136

(d) Article 129

Ans: d

247. Right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question o law belongs to:

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) Prime Minister

(d) President and Governor

Ans: a

248. The Advisory opinion tendered by the Supreme Court:

(a) Is binding on the President

(b) Is not binding on the President

(c) Is binding on the President only if it is unanimously made

(d) Is not made public at all

Ans: b

249. The minimum number of judges required for the purpose of hearing an: reference by President of India is:

(a) 8

(b) 5

(c) 2

(d) 15

Ans: b

250. Disputes between the States in India come to the Supreme Court under

(a) Appellate jurisdiction

(b) Advisory jurisdiction

(c) Original jurisdiction

(d) None of the above.

Ans: c

251. The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters pertain only to a:

(a) Question of Fact

(b) Question of Law

(c) Mixed Questions of Law and Fact

(d) Substantial Question of Law.

Ans: d

252. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution the Supreme Court has powers to review its decisions?

(a) Article 135

(b) Article 136

(c) Article 137

(d) Article 143

Ans: c

253. According to which Article of the Constitution of India, the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all Courts within the territory of India?

(a) Article 123

(b) Article 136

(c) Article 137

(d) Article 141

Ans: d

254. In which case curative petition was innovated by the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

(b) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, (1973)

(c) Roopa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Harra, (2002)

(d) Ashok kumar Thakur v. Union of India, (2008)

Ans: c

255. The concept of judicial review was borrowed from the Constitution of

(a) Britain

(b) France

(c) USA

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

256. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India is:

(a) Appellate only

(b) Original only

(c) Original as well as appellate

(d) Original, appellate and advisory

Ans: d

257. Which of the following is true about Supreme Court of India?

(a) Supreme Court shall sit in such places, as are approved by the Chief Justice of India under intimation to the President of India.

(b) No judgment shall be delivered by the Supreme Court save in open Court.

(c) President of India can enlarge the jurisdiction and powers of Supreme Court.

(d) All authorities including armed forces in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court.

Ans: b

258. ‘Curative Petition’ may be entertained by the Supreme Court in the following situation/situations

(a) when a Judge on the Bench having heard the matter did not disclose his connection with the subject matter.

(b) the petitioner filing the petition was not a party before the Court but has suffered a grave prejudice by the decision.

(c) the grounds mentioned in the Curative Petition had been agitated in the Review Petition which was dismissed in circulation.

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

259. What is the retirement age (in years) of a High court judge?

(a) 60

(b) 62

(c) 58

(d) 65

Ans: b

260. Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing?

(a) Writ of Certionari

(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus

(c) Writ of Mandamus

(d) Writ of Quo Warranto

Ans: c

261. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court is a Court of record. Reason (R): It delivers judgment in open Court. In India, the Governor of a State retires at the age of:

(a) 60

(b) 65

(c) 62

(d) There is no retirement age

Ans: d

262. Governor can resign from his post, his resignation will be addressed to the:

(a) President

(b) Chief Minister

(c) Vice-President

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: a

263. Which provision of the Constitution of India confers pardoning power on the Governor of a State?

(a) Article 171

(b) Article 151

(c) Article 161

(d) Article 163

Ans: c

264. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Governor

(c) President

(d) Vidhan Sabha

Ans: b

265. Who of the following has the right to participate in the proceeding of State Legislature?

(a) Chairman, State Public Service Commission

(b) Chief Justice of High Court

(c) Advocate General

(d) Chief of Police Force in the State

Ans: c

266. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor of a State lapses:

(a) After six months of its promulgation

(b) After six months of its publication in the official gazette

(c) After six weeks from the date of assembly of the House(s) of the State Legislature

(d) Whenever the Council of States takes a decision

Ans: c

267. Who can issue ordinance in State?

(a) Minister 1

(b) Govt. Advocate

(c) Governor

(d) Chief Minister

Ans: c

268. Under which provision of the Constitution High Courts have power to punish for contempt to itself?

(a) Article 214

(b) Article 226

(c) Article 215

(d) Article 216

Ans: c

269. Appointment of High Court judges is done by:

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) CJI

(d) Vice-President

Ans: a

270. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the control of the High Court over subordinate Courts in matters of posting, promotion, leave etc.?

(a) Article 226

(b) Article 227

(c) Article 235

(d) Article 225

Ans: c

271. The Chief Minister of National Capital Territory of Delhi is appointed by:

(a) Lieutenant Governor of Delhi

(b) President of India

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) Chief Justice of Delhi High Court

Ans: b

272. Parliament of India can make use of the Residuary powers for the purpose of making law:

(a) At all times

(b) Only during war

(c) Only during State emergency

(d) Only during Financial emergency

Ans: a

273. The exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter r enumerated in the concurrent list or state list is vested in the:

(a) State legislature

(b) Parliament

(c) President

(d) Governor

Ans: b

274. Indian Constitution reserves the residuary power to:

(a) Union

(b) States

(c) Parliament

(d) President

Ans: c

275. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the St: list provided it is in the:

(a) National interest

(b) Interest of the State concerned

(c) Interest of the public

(d) Interest of the minority

Ans: a

276. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-mat of laws made by Parliament to give effect to Treaties and Internatiot Agreements?

(a) Article 247

(b) Article 246

(c) Article 254

(d) Article 253

Ans: d

277. Assertion (A): In federalism there is division of powers between the Cen and States. Reason (R): The Legislation is not invalid merely because it incidentally encroach on matters which have been assigned to another Legislature. The Statement ‘what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirect relates to the doctrine of:

(a) Pith and Substance

(b) Implied Power

(c) Severability

(d) Colourable Legislation

Ans: d

278. In which case, the Supreme Court gave ‘Doctrine of Prospective Overrun’

(a) Shankari Pd. v. Union of India

(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

(c) L.C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(d) Keshavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala

Ans: d

279. Indirect interference in the field of another legislature is known as:

(a) obiter Dicta

(b) Non compos

(c) Harmonious construction

(d) Colourable legislation

Ans: d

280. The subject: “Bill of Exchange, Cheques, Promissory Notes” falls in which rest of VII Scheduled to the Constitution of India:

(a) State List

(b) Union List

(c) Concurrent List

(d) None of these

Ans: b

281. Under which list in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India does the subject ‘banking’ occur?

(a) Union List

(b) State List

(c) Both the Union List and State List

(d) Concurrent List

Ans: a

282. Who among the following can establish additional courts for better administration of any existing law with respect to a matter concerned in the Union List?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) High Court of the concerned State

(c) Parliament

(d) Concerned State Legislature

Ans: c

283. Who appoints UPSC members?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Chairman UPSC

(d) Lok Sabha Speaker

Ans: a

284. Whom does the UPSC submit its annual report on its work, to?

(a) President of India

(b) Parliament

(c) Council of Ministers

(d) Union Home Minister

Ans: a

285. The Chairman of Union Public Service Commission is appointed by:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha 

(d) Committee of Prime Minister and Vice-President

Ans: b

286. Election dispute can be resolved only through election petition to the

(a) District Court

(b) Only Supreme Court

(c) High Court

(d) By Election Tribunal

Ans: c

287. What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) Five Years

(b) 62 years of age

(c) Five years or 62 years of age whichever is earlier

(d) Six year or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

Ans: d

288. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office:

(a) By President of India.

(b) By Supreme Court of India.

(c) In manner and grounds as applicable for removal of judge of Suprei Court.

(d) By Government order

Ans: c

289. The President of India can declare

(a) War or threat of war

(b) Failure of Constitutional machinery

(c) Financial instability

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

290. Under Article 356 a proclamation to remain operative must be approve within 2 months by:

(a) Lok Sabha only

(b) Rajya Sabha only

(c) Both the houses of Parliament

(d) Either (a) or (b)

Ans: c

291. Who is empowered to proclaim emergency:

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) Council of Ministers.

(c) The President of India

(d) The Election Commission.

Ans: c

292. President’s Rule under Article 356 of Constitution State for the maximum period of?

(a) One year

(b) Two year

(c) Six months

(d) Nine months

Ans: c

293. The President can declare financial emergency:

(a) If there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India

(b) To meet the extraordinary expenses of conducting wars

(c) On the recommendation of the Comptroller and Auditor General

(d) If a majority of State Legislatures so recommend

Ans: a

294. Scope of Article 356 was examined in the case:

(a) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

(b) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India

(c) Mineroa Mills Ltd. v. Union of India

(d) U.N.R. Rao v.Indiara Gandhi

Ans: a

295. Which one of the following is not an automatic consequence of the proclamation of emergency?

(a) Suspension of enforcement of fundamental rights excepted those conferred by Articles 20 and 21.

(b) Extension of the Union’s executive power to issue of directions to any State as to the manner in which its executive power has to be exercised.

(c) Extension of the power of Parliament to the making of legislation in regard to items of the State List.

(d) Suspension of Article 19.

Ans: a

296. The constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution:

(a) Includes power to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal of the provision of the Constitution.

(b) Is unrestricted by any inherent and implied limitations.

(c) Is not procedurally limited and restricted

(d) Is extra constituent MI.

Ans: a

297. Basic structure of Constitution can be amended:

(a) By simple majority

(b) By 2/3 majority

(c) By special majority and ratification by half of states

(d) None of the above.

Ans: d

298. The basic structure doctrine with respect to the Constitution of India:

(a) Was propounded first in the judgment of the Supreme Court in Keswananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(b) Is contained in the Constitution itself

(c) Was propounded first in the judgment of the Supreme Court in A.K. Gopalan vi Government of India (I. C. Golaknath and Ors. v. State of Punjab)

(d) Was propounded first in the Privy Purse case

Ans: a

299. Which of the following Articles was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

(a) Article 330.

(b) Article 13

(c) Article 131

(d) Article 354

Ans: a

300. In Which year was the first amendment to the Constitution effecter

(a) 1950

(b) 1952

(c) 1951

(d) 1953

Ans: c

301. In which case the Supreme Court of India propound the basic feature doctrine for the first time?  

(a) Golaknath’s case

(b) Minerva Mills case

(c) Keshavananda Bharti case

(d) Women Rao case

Ans: c

302. Article 368 of the Constitution provides:

 (a) Procedure for amendment

(b) Power and procedure for amendment

(c) Power for amendment

(d) None of the above

Ans: b

303. Which of the following is not a requirement to be satisfied by the St: to exercise their discretion while providing for reservations in promotic in favour of SCs & STs?

(a) Backwardness of the class.

(b) Not crossing of 50% ceiling in a particular year

(c) Inadequacy of representation in Public Employment

(d) Efficiency in administration

Ans: b

304. Which of the following Articles was inserted by the Constitution (Nine, Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012?

(a) 371-J

(b) 19 (1) (h)

(c) 243-P

(d) 396

Ans. a

305. Article 262 of the Constitution of India relates to:

(a) adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or rig valleys

(b) provisions with respect to an inter-State Council

(c) Consolidated Funds and Public Accounts of India and of the States

(d) Contingency Fund

Ans: a

306. Which one of the following is considered as a Supreme source of power

(a) Supreme Court of India

(b) Parliament of India

(c) President of India

(d) Constitution of India

Ans: d

307. Who amongst the following has said that “Indian Constitution is a federation with strong centralizing tendency”?

(a) K.C. Wheare

(b) A.V. Dicey

(c) Sir Ivor Jennings

(d) None of the above

Ans: c

308. In the Sixth schedule of the Indian Constitution, provisions with regard to administration of tribal areas of some states have been made. Which of the following states is not included there in?

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Mizoram

(c) Tripura

(d) Manipur

Ans: d

309. Which of the following language is NOT a part of Eighth Schedule?

(a) Nepali

(b) Sanskrit

(c) Maithili

(d) Rajasthani

Ans: d

310.The objective of Audit is to examine and monitor the expenditure made by the:

(a) Executive

(b) Legislature

(c) Judiciary

(d) All of the above

Ans: d

311. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India accord special status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) 352

(b) 356

(c) 368

(d) 370

Ans: d

312. A major portion of the Constitution of India is derived from the:

(a) Constitution of UK

(b) Constitution of USA

(c) Government of India Act, 1935

(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans: c

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